Hi, Everyone:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I was never clear n this point: given that z is a single complex variable,

how/why does it make sense to talk about z having partial derivatives.?

I mean, if we are given, say, f(x,y); R<sup>2</sup> -->R<sup>n</sup>

then it makes sense to talk about f<sub>x</sub> and f<sub>y</sub>, since

x and y are different variables. But , in f(z), z is a single variable, so there are no

additional variables to refer to, to meaningfully talk about partial derivatives.

Is it the case that a function of a complex variable z is also a function of two complex

variables.?. If not, is there a formal/theoretical argument to support this use.?

Thanks.

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Partial Derivatives for Functions f(z) of a Complex Variable.

Loading...

Similar Threads - Partial Derivatives Functions | Date |
---|---|

I How to minimise this function? | Jun 10, 2016 |

I Chain rule in a multi-variable function | May 7, 2016 |

What is a function, when you consider the partial/total derivative? | Feb 27, 2014 |

Partial derivatives function | Nov 20, 2013 |

Partial derivative with respect to a function, rather than variable? | Oct 11, 2012 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**