Hi, Everyone: I was never clear n this point: given that z is a single complex variable, how/why does it make sense to talk about z having partial derivatives.? I mean, if we are given, say, f(x,y); R<sup>2</sup> -->R<sup>n</sup> then it makes sense to talk about f<sub>x</sub> and f<sub>y</sub>, since x and y are different variables. But , in f(z), z is a single variable, so there are no additional variables to refer to, to meaningfully talk about partial derivatives. Is it the case that a function of a complex variable z is also a function of two complex variables.?. If not, is there a formal/theoretical argument to support this use.? Thanks.