Particle Position Calculation Using Tangent Velocity Vector

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The discussion centers on calculating the position of a particle at time t_1=2, given its path defined by the vector function \(\vec{c}(t)=(e^t, e^{-t}, \cos{t})\) and the tangent velocity vector at time t_0=1. The velocity vector is derived as \(\vec{v}(t)=(e^t, -e^{-t}, -\sin{t})\), evaluated at t_0 to yield \(\vec{v}(1)=(e, -\frac{1}{e}, -\sin{1})\). The position at t_1 is calculated using the equation \(\vec{c}(t_0)+(t_1-t_0)\vec{c}_0(t_0)\), resulting in the final position \((2e, 0, \cos{1}-\sin{1})\), confirming the calculations are accurate despite initial notation confusion.

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Can someone please check my work on this?

Problem: Suppose that a particle following the given path c(t) flies off on a tangent at t = t_0. Compute the position of the particle at the given time t_1.
Given: [itex]\vec{c}(t)=(e^t, e^{-t}, \cos{t}), t_0=1, t_1=2[/itex]

Here's how I did it:
The tangent to the position vector at any time is the velocity vector, so:
[tex]\vec{v}(t)=(e^t, -e^{-t}, -\sin{t})[/tex]
[tex]\vec{v}(t_0)=(e, -\frac{1}{e}, -\sin{1}) = \vec{c}_0 (t_0)[/tex]
where I define [itex]\vec{c}_0 (t)[/itex] as the position along the tangent at time t.
Then, the position at t_1 is:
[tex]\vec{c}(t_0)+\vec{c}_0 (t_0) = (2e,0, \cos{1}-\sin{1})[/tex]

Does this result make sense?

Edit: Actually, I think the proper final equation should be [itex]\vec{c}(t_0)+(t_1-t_0)\vec{c}_0 (t_0) = (2e,0, \cos{1}-\sin{1})[/itex] but in this case the answer comes out the same.
 
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I got the same answer, but your notation (using c and c0 instead of c and v) confused me for a moment.

-Dale
 
Thanks, Dale. Sorry about the notation, it made more sense in my head :-p
 

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