I think that in Special Relativity, the drift of the perihelion can be calculated by cumulating elementary Lorentz transformations along the (Newtonian, unperturbed) trajectory. I read that the result of this calculation is much smaller than the experimental value.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

It is also well known that general Relativity produces the exact result, within the error bars.

My questions are:

What happened and what can we learn from that ?

How and why did GR perform better ?

Furthermore, is that not somehow in contradiction with the Equivalence Principle ? Could we not imagine that the EP applied to this system would imply the same result for both SR and GR ?

Thanks a lot for your feedback,

Michel

PS: I would also be interrested by a reference about these calculations, I am a bit lazy !

Specially about calculating the drift as a perturbation of the Newtonian case.

Can that really be done by Lorentz tranformations?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Perihelion drift in SR and in GR

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**