Perturbation theory infinite well

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of perturbation theory in the context of an infinite potential well, specifically examining the effects of a small potential on the total energy of the system using the time-independent Schrödinger equation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to calculate the total energy by integrating a product of wave functions and a potential term, questioning why the result appears to show no effect on the total energy. Other participants raise concerns about the validity of the integral being zero and suggest reviewing the integration steps.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, with some offering to check the integration steps and others reflecting on potential errors in the original calculations. There is a recognition of a mistake in applying integration techniques, with a participant expressing a desire to correct their approach.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of an attachment containing working steps, and participants are encouraged to clarify their integration methods, indicating a focus on understanding the mathematical process involved.

Dammes
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in the infinite well with small potential shown in the attachment.
I calculated the total energy by using the time independent Schrödinger equation and adding the correction energy to the equation of the slope k=(Vo/L)x.

E=h^2/8mL^2 +∫ ψkψ dx

ψ=√(2/L) sin⁡(∏/L x)

when integrating ∫ ψkψ dx between 0 and L
I got Zero, ∫ ψkψ dx=0
∴ total energy=h^2/8mL^2 +0

so what i don't understand is when adding a small potential it doesn't affect the total energy of the system? that is what it shows when i integrated it.
 

Attachments

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Dammes said:
i
when integrating ∫ ψkψ dx between 0 and L
I got Zero, ∫ ψkψ dx=0

I don't believe that integral is zero. Check your work to see if you might have made a mistake.
 
i have looked over and did it again, i still get zero.
could you please try out the integral
∫ ψkψ dx

where ψ=√(2/L) sin⁡((∏/L) x)
and
k=(Vo/L)x
 
Maybe you can show some of the steps of how you integrated \int_0^L sin^2(\pi x/L)\; x \;dx. Note that the integrand is positive throughout the range of integration. So, it's got to yield a positive result.
 
the pictures in the attachment shows some of my working
 

Attachments

  • Photo on 10-7-12 at 6.37 PM.jpg
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  • Photo on 10-7-12 at 6.38 PM #2.jpg
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looking over it again i see where i went wrong, i used integration in the product rule. sorry for wasting your time and thank you very much!
 
sorry, please don't read my previous comment. i see where i acutely went wrong, i have to use integration by parts. i have a problem of mixing up integration and differentiation.
hope I am correct this time
sorry and thank you
 
No need to be sorry. Glad to be of help.
 

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