go quantum! Messages 54 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Jan 16, 2011 #1 Why must the 4-momentum for photons [tex]p^\mu =(\frac{h\nu}{c},\frac{h\nu}{c} \textbf{e})[/tex] transform as a 4-vector in Special Relativity?
Why must the 4-momentum for photons [tex]p^\mu =(\frac{h\nu}{c},\frac{h\nu}{c} \textbf{e})[/tex] transform as a 4-vector in Special Relativity?
Dale Mentor Insights Author Messages 37,035 Reaction score 16,057 Jan 16, 2011 #2 I don't understand the question. The four-momentum transforms as a four-vector for all particles, not just photons.
I don't understand the question. The four-momentum transforms as a four-vector for all particles, not just photons.
CompuChip Science Advisor Homework Helper Messages 4,305 Reaction score 49 Jan 16, 2011 #3 And if you apply an arbitrary Lorentz transformation, you can easily check that it does. You can even derive it (Let [itex]p^\mu = (p^0, \vec{p})[/itex], apply a Lorentz transformation and you will see what p0 should be).
And if you apply an arbitrary Lorentz transformation, you can easily check that it does. You can even derive it (Let [itex]p^\mu = (p^0, \vec{p})[/itex], apply a Lorentz transformation and you will see what p0 should be).