Point of convergence of a series

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SUMMARY

The series $\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{k^2}{k!}$ converges to $2e$. This conclusion is reached by manipulating the series through the use of factorial properties and recognizing the relationship to the exponential function. Specifically, the series is transformed into $\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{k}{k!} + \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k!}$, both of which relate to the value of $e$. The ratio test confirms the convergence of the series.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of infinite series and convergence tests
  • Familiarity with factorial notation and operations
  • Basic knowledge of the exponential function and its properties
  • Experience with manipulating summations and series transformations
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of the exponential function, particularly in relation to series expansions
  • Learn about the ratio test and other convergence tests for infinite series
  • Explore advanced topics in combinatorics related to factorials and series
  • Investigate other series involving factorials and their convergence properties
USEFUL FOR

Students preparing for the GRE, mathematicians interested in series convergence, and educators teaching calculus or advanced mathematics concepts.

caffeinemachine
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Hello MHB.

I have been preparing for my subject GRE and I need help on the following problem.

Find $\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{k^2}{k!}$.

Using the ratio test we know that the series converges but how to we find what it converges to?
 
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caffeinemachine said:
Hello MHB.

I have been preparing for my subject GRE and I need help on the following problem.

Find $\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{k^2}{k!}$.

Using the ratio test we know that the series converges but how to we find what it converges to?

Is...

$\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{k^{2}}{k!} = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{k}{(k-1)!} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{k+1}{k!} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{k}{k!} + \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k!} = 2\ e$

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
chisigma said:
Is...

$\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{k^{2}}{k!} = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{k}{(k-1)!} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{k+1}{k!} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{k}{k!} + \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k!} = 2\ e$

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
Taught me a lot. Thanks. :)
 

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