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Point P is a point of inflection?

  1. Apr 16, 2006 #1

    Hootenanny

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    I just want to check something I'm not sure on. If at point P; [itex]f'(x) = 0[/itex] and [itex]f''(x) = 0 [/itex] and [itex]f'''(x) \neq 0[/itex] can we definatly say that point P is a point of inflection?

    Regards,
    ~Hoot
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 16, 2006 #2

    Hootenanny

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  4. Apr 16, 2006 #3

    Zurtex

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    That depends how you define "point of inflection", some times that's just how it is defined.

    Easy way to test, if you consider x5 to be a point of inflection at x=0 then your test fails.

    However if you don't consider it to be a point of inflection then your test is fine.
     
    Last edited: Apr 16, 2006
  5. Apr 16, 2006 #4

    Hootenanny

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    Thank you Zurtex, extremely helpful.

    Regards,
    ~Hoot
     
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