MHB Pointwise convergence implies uniform convergence

Siron
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Hi,

I have to prove the following theorem:

Let $f_n:[0,1] \to \mathbb{R}, \forall n \geq 1$ and suppose that $\{f_n|n \in \mathbb{N}\}$ is equicontinuous. If $f_n \to f$ pointwise then $f_n \to f$ uniformly.

Before I start the proof I'll put the definitions here:
$f_n \to f$ pointwise if and only if $\forall \epsilon>0, \forall x \in X, \exists N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $\forall n \geq N: |f_n(x)-f(x)|<\epsilon$
$f_n \to f$ uniformly if and only if $\forall \epsilon>0, \exists N \in \mathbb{N}, \forall x \in X: |f_n(x)-f(x)|<\epsilon$
$\{f_n|n \in \mathbb{N}\}$ equicontinuous if and only if $\forall \epsilon>0, \exists \delta>0, \forall n \in \mathbb{N}: |x-y|<\delta \Rightarrow |f_n(x)-f_n(y)|<\epsilon$
Attempt:
Let $\epsilon>0$ and define the sets $U_k=\{x \in [0,1]||f_n(x)-f(x)|<\epsilon, \forall n \geq k\}$ then I claim $U_k$ are open sets and hence because of the pointwise convergence of $f_n \to f$ they form an open covering for $[0,1]$. Since $[0,1]$ is compact there exists a finite subcover, that is, $\exists k_1,\ldots,k_n \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $[0,1] \subset \bigcup_{j=1}^{n} U_{k_j}$. We can assume that $k_1\leq k_2\leq \ldots \leq k_n$ and since $U_{k_j} \subseteq U_{k_1}, \forall j \geq 1$ I conclude $[0,1] \subseteq U_{k_1}$, i.e $\exists k_1 \in \mathbb{N}: \forall x \in X: |f_n(x)-f(x)|<\epsilon, \forall n \geq K$ which means $f_n \to f$ uniformly.

Is this proof correct? If yes, I'll show my proof for the claim: $U_k$ is open which follows by the equicontinuity.

Is there a way to show the statement by using Ascoli's theorem?Thanks in advance!
Cheers.
 
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From mathwonk:

This seems to be a standard application of ascoli's theorem, as explained in wikipedia.

one remark, the questioner had misstated the definition of equicontinuous, giving instead the definition of uniformly equicontinuous.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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