Hi all Came across this question which i have attempted to answer but am sure i have gone wrong somewhere, any help would be appreciated... Suppose fn(x):R-->R, where fn(x)=x+(1/n) (n belongs to N). Find the pointwise limits of the sequences (fn), (1/n fn) and (fn2). In each case determine whether the convergence is uniform. Now i managed to get all three as being uniformly convergent and am sure i went wrong somewhere. I am still struggling to understand uniform convergence completely. The pointwise limits i computed were x, 0, x2 respectively...sorry i havnt put my working up struggling to use latex.