- #1
Logarythmic
- 281
- 0
If I have a point mass that experiences a force
[tex]\vec{F}(\vec{r}) = - \frac{k}{r^2} \vec{e_r} -mg \vec{e_z}[/tex]
is it correct that the potential is
[tex]V = - \frac{k}{r} + mgz[/tex]
??
[tex]\vec{F}(\vec{r}) = - \frac{k}{r^2} \vec{e_r} -mg \vec{e_z}[/tex]
is it correct that the potential is
[tex]V = - \frac{k}{r} + mgz[/tex]
??