Power Means Inequality (the geometric part)

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the power means inequality, specifically focusing on the definition of the geometric mean as the limit of the power mean when n approaches zero. Participants explore the intuition behind this definition and seek clarification on the mathematical justification for it.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion about the definition of the geometric mean as the limit of the power mean when n approaches zero.
  • Another participant requests clarification on the power means inequality, suggesting it may be known by different names.
  • A participant provides a mathematical expression related to the power means inequality.
  • There is a mention of the conditions under which the power means inequality holds, particularly regarding the values of r and s and the non-negativity of the variables involved.
  • One participant notes that the limit results in an indeterminate form and suggests using logarithms and L'Hopital's Rule to resolve it.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the justification for the limit defining the geometric mean, and the discussion includes varying levels of understanding and approaches to the problem.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved mathematical steps regarding the limit process and the handling of indeterminate forms. The discussion also reflects differing levels of familiarity with the concepts involved.

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Hi everyone! So I'm trying to learn more about inequalities and the one I'm starting with is the power means inequality. But it all seems pretty intuitive except how they define the n=0 power mean (i.e. the geometric mean). I read that it's actually the limit as n->0, but I don't see why that's true. Any help? Thanks!
 
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Could you perhaps quote the 'power means' inequality? I may have seen it before under a different name, or under no name.
 
You're perhaps asking about
[tex](a^x+b^x)^{1/x}[/tex]
 
So the equality is that given [tex]r > s[/tex] and [tex]x_1, x_2, \ldots x_n \epsilon \; \Re[/tex] where [tex]s \geq 0[/tex] if any of the [tex]x_1, x_2, \ldots x_n = 0[/tex]. Then:
[tex]P(r) \geq P(s)[/tex]
where [tex]P(r) = \left \{ {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> {(\frac{x_1^r + x_2^r \ldots + x_n^r}{n})^{1/r},} & {r \neq 0} \\<br /> {\sqrt[n]{x_1 x_2 \ldots x_n},} & {r = 0} \\<br /> \end{array}} \right.[/tex]
And supposedly if we take the limit of P(r) to 0 we get P(0) but I don't see how that's true.

On another note, how do I make my fraction look bigger. It looks really small. Thanks!
 
In the limit, you have an indeterminate form like [tex]1^\infty[/tex]. The standard way to deal with that kind of indeterminate form is to take the log and then use L'Hopital's Rule. If you'd like me to work it out for you, let me know, but I think you can probably get it yourself from there.
 
Success! Thanks!
 

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