Preimage and function composition?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of preimages in the context of functions, specifically examining the relationship between a function f and its preimage f-1. The original poster seeks to demonstrate that for a function f: S → T and a subset B of the range of f, the equality f(f-1(B)) = B holds true.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster considers using function composition in their proof and questions whether this approach is valid. They express uncertainty about the application of f-1 and its interpretation. Other participants clarify that f-1 is not a function in the traditional sense and discuss the implications of this notation.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring the definitions and properties of preimages and function composition. Some guidance has been offered regarding the interpretation of f-1 and its role in the proof, but no consensus has been reached on the approach to take.

Contextual Notes

There is a note about the potential confusion surrounding the notation f-1, emphasizing that it is defined as a mapping from subsets of T to subsets of S, rather than as an inverse function in the traditional sense.

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Homework Statement



Let f:S→T and let A[itex]\subseteq[/itex]T. Define the preimage of A as f-1(A)={x in S: f(x) is in A}.
Demonstrate that for any such map f and B[itex]\subseteq[/itex]ran(f), f(f-1(B)) = B.

I am going to use set inclusion to prove this, but can I use function composition in the portion in red? I was going to say an element y is in f(f-1(B)) and then was thinking to apply function composition so as to map an element x back to S then apply f to it and map the new element to B.
Does this seem right?

Thanks.
 
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SMA_01 said:
I am going to use set inclusion to prove this, but can I use function composition in the portion in red? I was going to say an element y is in f(f-1(B)) and then was thinking to apply function composition so as to map an element x back to S then apply f to it and map the new element to B.
.
It's not exactly function composition, because [itex]f^{-1}[/itex] isn't necessarily a function. This is because, for a given [itex]y[/itex] in the image of [itex]f[/itex], there may be more than one [itex]x[/itex] satisfying [itex]y = f(x)[/itex].

The way to interpret the expression in red is that [itex]f^{-1}(B)[/itex] is the set of all [itex]x[/itex] such that [itex]f(x) \in B[/itex]. And f(f^{-1}(B)) is the image of that set under [itex]f[/itex].
 
SMA_01 said:

Homework Statement



Let f:S→T and let A[itex]\subseteq[/itex]T. Define the preimage of A as f-1(A)={x in S: f(x) is in A}.
Demonstrate that for any such map f and B[itex]\subseteq[/itex]ran(f), f(f-1(B)) = B.

I am going to use set inclusion to prove this, but can I use function composition in the portion in red? I was going to say an element y is in f(f-1(B)) and then was thinking to apply function composition so as to map an element x back to S then apply f to it and map the new element to B.
Does this seem right?

Thanks.

For what it's worth, it's good to remember that the notation f-1 is actually being abused here. This is the normal use, but it's good to remember what it means.

f is a function from S -> T; and at some other time in class we may have occasion to talk about its inverse function f-1 : T -> S.

However here we're not doing that. f-1 is being defined as a function from the power set of T to the power set of S; that is,

f-1 : P(T) -> P(S)

For each subset of T, we define P(T) as a particular subset of S.

You have to be careful to remember that f goes left to right from points to points, and f-1 goes from right to left from subsets to subsets.
 
I see, thank you! I was a little hesitant with using composition, but now I know to just use the definition of preimage and I think that should do the trick.
 

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