Let p be a prime number.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Let A be an integer divisible by p but B be an integer not be divisible by p.

Let A/B be an integer.

How do I prove that A/B is divisible by p?

This sounds like a simple question but I just can't get it. I'm doing it in relation to proving Fermat's little theorem. (a^p = a mod p for all integers a) I'm trying to understand why the binomial coefficients in the binomial expansion of (1+a)^n are all divisible by p (=0 mod p) for all the terms with powers [1, p-1].

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Prime number dividing fractions.

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**