- #1

donglepuss

- 17

- 4

- TL;DR Summary
- if i select two integers at random between 1 and 1,000, what is the probability that their sum will be prime?

im thinking i should just integrate (binominal distribution 1-2000 * prime probability function) and divide by integral of bin. distr. 1-2000.

note that I am looking for a novel proof, not just some brute force calculation.

(this isn't homework, I am just curious.)

note that I am looking for a novel proof, not just some brute force calculation.

(this isn't homework, I am just curious.)