Probability density with finite moment?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on constructing a probability density function (PDF) that possesses a finite moment of order r but lacks higher finite moments. The key insight is derived from the series \(\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} k^{-(r+2)}\), which can be normalized to form a valid PDF. The solution involves dividing the series by itself, resulting in the PDF defined as \(\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{k^{-(r+2)}}{\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} k^{-(r+2)}}\), which converges to 1 for \(r \geq 0\), while moments of order greater than r diverge.

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Homework Statement


From Hoel, Port, & Stone, Chapter 4, Exercise 9: Construct an example of a density that has a finite moment of order r but has no higher finite moment. Hint: Consider the series [tex]\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} k^{-(r+2)}[/tex] and make this into a density.

Btw, this is for my own self-study. I don't even know if schools use this book anymore (my edition is from 1971).

Homework Equations


The r-th moment for a discrete random variable is defined as [tex]\sum_{k}k^r f(k)[/tex] where f(k) is a probability density function [tex](i.e., \sum_{k}f(k) = 1 )[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


If we were to take the Hint and pretend f is a probability density defined by [tex]f(k) = k^{-(r+2)}[/tex], then I see that a moment of order > r would result in something greater than a harmonic series, which is divergent. But I don't see how to turn f into a probability density function. I know [tex]\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} k^{-2} = \pi / 6[/tex], but I'm pretty sure there are no "convenient" solutions for [tex]\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} k^{-(r+2)}[/tex] where r is an arbitrary positive integer. If there were, than I could just normalize the series to 1 by dividing it, e.g., [tex]\frac{6}{\pi} \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} k^{-2}[/tex] qualifies as a probability density for r=0.

Any help would be much appreciated! A hint or two would be ideal. All of the exercises in this book have been relatively straightforward up to this point, so I feel like this question should not be that difficult. Perhaps I am just misunderstanding the question.
 
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Ah, figured it out. I was looking for a nice solution when the raw form would suffice... just divide the series above by itself. So the probability density function would be:
[tex] \frac{1}{\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} k^{-(r+2)}} \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} k^{-(r+2)}[/tex]
[tex] = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{k^{-(r+2)}}{\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} k^{-(r+2)}}[/tex]

This converges to 1 for r >= 0. And moments of order > r would diverge.
 

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