Probability distribution of outgoing energy of particle

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The discussion focuses on deriving the probability distribution of outgoing energy for a particle scattering isotropically in the center of mass (CM) frame. It establishes that the probability density function P(E') can be expressed in terms of the angle θ and the energy E' using Lorentz transformations. The formula for E' in the lab frame is derived from the CM frame energy E'_{CM} and incorporates the velocity of the CM frame. The final expression for P(E') is presented, highlighting the relationship between E' and θ. The poster seeks validation on the correctness of their approach and calculations.
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Homework Statement
Consider the scattering of particle 1 that is massless with particle 2 of mass m that is at rest in the lab frame. Let E and E' be the incoming and outgoing energy of particle 1 in the lab frame. Find the probability distribution of E' assuming that in the center of mass frame particle 1 is scatter in all directions with equal probability.
Relevant Equations
##p_{1} + p_{2} = p_{1}' + p_{2}'##
##v_{CM} = \frac{p_{total}}{E_{total}}##
So from particle 1 scattering in all directions with equal probability in the CM frame, I believe that that means probability of finding particle 1 in an angular range ##d\theta## is just ##\frac{d \theta}{2 \pi}##. Let P(E') be the probability density of E', so from the probability of finding the particle in a range ##d \theta##, ##P(E')dE' = \frac{d \theta}{2 \pi} ##, so ##P(E') = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \frac{d \theta}{dE'}##. Since this expression is in terms of the angle in the CM frame and not the lab frame, I need to solve for E' in terms of the angle in CM frame.

In the CM frame ##E'_{CM} = \frac{s - m^{2}}{2 \sqrt{s}}## where s is just the Mandelstam variable ##s = (p_{1} + p_{2})^{2}##. Since the square of a 4-vector is Lorentz invariant, ##(p_{1}+p_{2})^{2} = p_{1}^{2} + p_{2}^{2} + 2 p_{1} p_{2} = m^{2} + 2mE## (note I'm using natural units). So ##E'_{CM} = \frac{mE}{\sqrt{m^{2} + 2mE}}##. Now I need to relate this expression to E' in the lab frame, so I'll use a Lorentz transform for ##v_{CM} = \frac{p_{1}}{E + m} = \frac{E}{E+m}## and take the direction that particle 1 is initially moving in to be along the z axis for simplicity, so ##E' = \gamma E'_{CM} + \alpha E'_{CM}cos(\theta)## where ##\gamma = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - (v_{CM)^{2}}}## and ##\alpha = v_{CM} \gamma## when using natural units.
So rearranging this ## \theta = cos^{-1}(\frac{E' - \gamma E'_{CM}}{\alpha E'_{CM}})##, so plugging this back into my earlier expression for ##P(E')##,
I get ##P(E') = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \frac{1}{1 - (\frac{E' - \gamma E'_{CM}}{\alpha E'_{CM}})^{2} }##.

Is the right way to go about this problem or is something wrong with my thinking?
 
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So since it looks like I made a formatting error and for some reason I can't edit my post anymore, here is the section with messed up formatting fixed:
##\gamma = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - v_{CM}^{2}}}## and ##\alpha = v_{CM} \gamma## when using natural units. So So rearranging the expression for E' ##\theta = cos^{-1}(\frac{E' - \gamma E'_{CM}}{\alpha E'_{CM}})## So plugging this into my expression for P(E'), I get ##P(E') = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \frac{1}{1 - (\frac{E' - \gamma E'_{CM}}{\alpha E'_{CM}})^{2}}##
 
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