Probability - Men and women meeting

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Robin04
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Homework Statement
There are N women and M men on a party. They can make friends with the same gender one by one independently with ##p## probability. Men and women cannot make friends. What's the probability that if we choose a man and a woman, the sum of their friends they got to know is ##k##.
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I'm not sure how to start this. Can you give me a little hint?
 
Try considering it is just M number of people with probability p. For example say it's 3 people. So a person can have either 1 friend or 2 friends. Once you figure you this situation works, then consider men as a group, pick 1, then women is a separate group, pick 1.
 
Are you familiar with discrete random variables? This particular problem could be solved by applying binomial distribution.
 
lomidrevo said:
Are you familiar with discrete random variables? This particular problem could be solved by applying binomial distribution.
So the variable that stands for the number of friends of a man or woman follows the binomial distribution. Wikipedia: ##\Pr(X = k) = \binom{n}{k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}## where ##n## can be M and N, and ##p## is the same ##p## as in our problem. We have now two independent variables. How to get that probability that their sum is a certain value?
 
Robin04 said:
So the variable that stands for the number of friends of a man or woman follows the binomial distribution. Wikipedia: ##\Pr(X = k) = \binom{n}{k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}## where ##n## can be M and N, and ##p## is the same ##p## as in our problem. We have now two independent variables. How to get that probability that their sum is a certain value?

Isn't that what you have calculated?

Hint: can you combine the ##M + N## trials?
 
Robin04 said:
I found this: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1176385/sum-of-two-independent-binomial-variables
According to this the sum of two binomials is another binomial with the sum of their parameters, so ##n## has to be substituted by ##M+N##, right?

If you want a total of ##k## successes from two sets of ##M## and ##N## trials, then isn't that the same as ##k## successes from ##M + N## trials? Assuming they are all independent.

The problem is a bit artificial as why would there be the same probability of making a friend in each case? If, instead, each man tossed a coin ##M## times and each woman tossed a coin ##N## times, then the probability they have ##k## heads between them is clearly the same as if one person had tossed a coin ##M + N## times.

That said, are ##M## and ##N## correct for the number of trials?
 
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Robin04 said:
so n has to be substituted by M+N, right?
Almost there. Maximally how many friends can one make?
 
lomidrevo said:
Almost there. Maximally how many friends can one make?
N-1 and M-1
 
  • #10
That looks better
 
  • #11
lomidrevo said:
That looks better
So n is N+M-2? But why?
 
  • #12
Yes, that should be correct. Binomial distribution ca be seen as a sum of ##n## indepedent Bernoulli trials. Each opportunity for a friendship in this example is a Bernoulli trial. So for ##n## you have to use the total number of opportunities to make a friendship (for the chosen woman and man)
 

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