Probability of Receiving 2-4-6-7-Queen-King Sequence from 40 Cards

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on calculating the probability of drawing a specific sequence of cards (2-4-6-7-Queen-King) from a 40-card deck. The initial approach suggests that the probability is calculated by considering the number of favorable outcomes against the total possible outcomes, leading to an answer of (A). However, the correct answer is (C), which assumes that the cards must all be of the same suit, significantly altering the probability calculation. The confusion arises from the interpretation of whether the sequence requires cards from the same suit or can be from any suit. Ultimately, the clarification emphasizes the importance of suit specification in probability calculations.
tomwilliam
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Homework Statement
I'm helping my son with past papers before an exam - I know the answer to this but don't know why.
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A quick translation of the question: We have a deck of 40 cards, containing four suits (hearts, diamonds, spades, clubs), in which each suit has an ace, a queen, a jack, a king and six number cards (2 to 7). From the deck, six cards are distributed randomly and successively to a player who picks them up in the order he receives them. What is the probability of obtaining the sequence 2 - 4 - 6 - 7 - queen - king in the cards he receives.

My thinking is that the P = number of favourable outcomes / total universe of possible outcomes.

So looking first at the favourable outcomes: the top of that fraction should be a sequence of any of the four 2s, then any of the four 4s, etc. until we reach six cards. There are four suits, so that should be 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 = 4^6.

The bottom half should be simply any 6 cards taken from a set of 40, so that would be ^40 A_6 (where I think the term A (Arrangement) might be P = Permutation in English).

So my answer would be (A). It turns out the answer is (C)... so where did I go wrong?

Thanks in advance!

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The answer C assumes that the cards are all the same pre-specified suit. For example, the probability of being dealt the 2-4-6-7-D-R of clubs (in that order) equals ##(\frac 1 {40})(\frac 1 {39}) \dots (\frac 1 {35})##, which is answer C.

For the question as you have interpreted it, the answer is A.
 
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PeroK said:
The answer C assumes that the cards are all the same pre-specified suit. For example, the probability of being dealt the 2-4-6-7-D-R of clubs (in that order) equals ##(\frac 1 {40})(\frac 1 {39}) \dots (\frac 1 {35})##, which is answer C.

For the question as you have interpreted it, the answer is A.
Thank you! I considered this possibility, but discarded it on the following logic:

If the question means that the sequence has to be all of the same suit, it should still be a factor of 4 in answer (C), as there are four possible suits for it to work with.

If the question wants a specific suit, it doesn't appear to say that anywhere, which I think is pretty misleading.

Thanks for your help!
 
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