Problem with angular momentum operator math

In summary: P_z-P_z z=(z*(-i*hbar*d/dz*psi(z))-(-i*hbar*d/dz*z*psi(z))=-i*z*hbar*Psi(dz)+ihbar*Psi(dz)=(-i*z*hbar+i*hbar)Psi(dz)Where is i/hbar coming from?First, it's not i/hbar, it's i\hbar, which is LaTeX for i*hbar.Second, from your manipulations I get the impression you don't know how to apply
  • #1
Pchemaaah
15
0

Homework Statement


I am basically trying to show that LxLy-LyLx=i(hbar)Lz

Homework Equations


Lx=yPz-zPy
Ly=zPx-xPz

The Attempt at a Solution



I get to the end where I have i(hbar)Lz-z*y*PxPz+z*xPyPz. How do I get these last two terms to cancel out? I am not too strong in operator math (it hasnt been taught to me, just assumed I can do it), so I don't know if the d/dz part of the Pz operator can still apply to a z that is to the left of it, but if it does then I get LxLy-LyLx=2*i(hbar)Pz which is wrong according to my book... Can anyone help?
 
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  • #2
Do you know how to calculate z*P_z-P_z*z?

The equation you're trying to prove is wrong anyway, so that will be quite hard...
 
  • #3
Is the solution to your calculation 0 or zP_z+i(hbar)? This is where my operator math gets fuzzy.

And I extracted that equation from a larger problem that asks me to prove that the angular momentum operator (L) squared commutes with each component of the angular momentum. The book goes about solving this by showing that:

Ly2Lx-LxLy2=Ly2Lx-(LyLx+i(hbar)Lz)Ly

It does not explain how or why this is equivalent, so seeing how the left has to equal the right, I extracted my question. Can you explain why this is not correct or what I am doing wrong?

AH! I apologize, I had a P instead of an L in my first post, sorry if that caused confusion.
 
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  • #4
Pchemaaah said:
Is the solution to your calculation 0 or zP_z+i(hbar)? This is where my operator math gets fuzzy.

Neither: you should apply the operator z*P_z -P_z *z to a dummy wavefunction:

(z*P_z -P_z *z) psi = S psi

where S turns out to be a very simple operator (so, you'll have to find what that simple operator S is). That gives you

z*P_z -P_z *z=S

Then you can use that to figure out what L_x L_y-L_yL_x is.
 
  • #5
borgwal said:
Neither: you should apply the operator z*P_z -P_z *z to a dummy wavefunction:

(z*P_z -P_z *z) psi = S psi

where S turns out to be a very simple operator (so, you'll have to find what that simple operator S is). That gives you

z*P_z -P_z *z=S

Then you can use that to figure out what L_x L_y-L_yL_x is.

Im sorry but I don't understand what you did. It seems like you threw up an arbitrary operator S and used that to define the solution to (z*P_z -P_z *z) as itself. If it is not 0 or i(hbar), then what is its exact solution?
 
  • #6
It is i\hbar (but that's not what you wrote in your question). That is, I wanted you to find the simple operator S: the answer is indeed S=i\hbar I (with I the identity, which is usually left out)
 
  • #7
Now substitute zP_z-P_z z=i\hbar in:

L_xL_y-L_yL_x,

what do you get?
 
  • #8
Before I do that, can you show me how it ends up being i/hbar? I cannot for the life of me get to that answer which is probably the root of my difficulties haha.

Ill show my steps I guess so you can point out where I am wrong:
zP_z-P_z z=(z*-i*hbar*d/dz)-(-i*hbar*d/dz*z)=-i*z*hbar*d/dz+ihbar=zP_z+ihbar (if the d/dz operator cannot apply to z since z is to its left)

OR -ihbar+ihbar=0 (if it can apply to z)
 
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  • #9
I tried to tell you how to calculate it: apply the operators to a (dummy) function. The operator d/dz then applies to everything to its right: for one term, the z*P_z term, it only applies to the function, but for the term P_z*z it will apply to the product of z and the function.
 
  • #10
Ok, so even if I do put a function in I don't see how you get your result:

(zP_z-P_z z)psi(z)=(z*(-i*hbar*d/dz*psi(z))-(-i*hbar*d/dz*z*psi(z))=-i*z*hbar*Psi(dz)+ihbar*Psi(dz)=(-i*z*hbar+i*hbar)Psi(dz)

Where is i/hbar coming from?
 
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  • #11
First, it's not i/hbar, it's i\hbar, which is LaTeX for i*hbar.

Second, from your manipulations I get the impression you don't know how to apply d/dz to a function.
 
  • #12
Well I have a hard time typing it out, but it is just Psi(dz) instead of Psi(z) when d/dz is applied to it correct?

And can you show me where I am going wrong or how much further I have to go to get to that result because that will essentially enable me to solve this problem since I keep running into the same issues that I am having with your simple sample.

Ill edit the above post to reflect this.
 
  • #13
Psi(dz)?? I have no idea where you would get this from.

Do you know what d/dz stands for?
 
  • #14
Yes it is the derivative with respect to z. So if I have a dummy function psi and I take the derivative of it with respect to z, then I get Psi'(z) (prime of z) or I was calling it Psi(dz) in the event that it had other variables (d/dz psi(x,y,z)=psi (x,y,dz)). If this is incorrect notation I apologize and I do not know the correct way to express it.
 
  • #15
Okay, good: let's go with Psi' then. What is d/dz (z*Psi)? Then subtract z*Psi', and you have your answer.
 
  • #16
borgwal said:
Okay, good: let's go with Psi' then. What is d/dz (z*Psi)? Then subtract z*Psi', and you have your answer.

d/dz (z*Psi)=Psi(z)+zPsi'(z)

Ahhhh ok I totally forgot about product rule and was stopping the derivative operator before psi. Thank you so much!
 
  • #17
okidoki!
 

1. What is the angular momentum operator?

The angular momentum operator is a mathematical operator used in quantum mechanics to describe the angular momentum of a particle. It is denoted by the symbol "L" and is a vector quantity that has both magnitude and direction.

2. Why is there a problem with the angular momentum operator in math?

The problem with the angular momentum operator arises when trying to use it to describe the angular momentum of a rotating object. In classical mechanics, the angular momentum of a rotating object is equal to the product of its moment of inertia and its angular velocity. However, in quantum mechanics, the angular momentum operator does not follow the same rules as in classical mechanics, causing discrepancies in calculations.

3. How is the problem with the angular momentum operator solved?

The problem with the angular momentum operator is solved by introducing the concept of quantum spin. Spin is an intrinsic property of particles that cannot be explained by classical mechanics. By including spin in the calculations, the angular momentum operator can accurately describe the angular momentum of a rotating object in quantum mechanics.

4. What is the relationship between the angular momentum operator and the Hamiltonian operator?

The Hamiltonian operator is used to describe the total energy of a system in quantum mechanics. It is related to the angular momentum operator through the commutator, which measures the extent to which two operators can be measured simultaneously. In quantum mechanics, the angular momentum operator and the Hamiltonian operator do not commute, meaning they cannot be measured simultaneously with absolute certainty.

5. How is the angular momentum operator used in practical applications?

The angular momentum operator is used in many practical applications in quantum mechanics, such as describing the behavior of electrons in atoms and molecules, and in nuclear physics. It is also used in fields such as quantum computing and quantum cryptography. Understanding the properties and behavior of the angular momentum operator is crucial in developing new technologies and advancing our understanding of the quantum world.

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