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Product rule instead of quotient rule?

  1. Mar 19, 2006 #1
    Say for example, to differentiate x/(x²+1) I would use to quotient rule. However, would it be legal to bring up the denominator to: (x)(x²+1)-¹ and use the product/chain rule instead?
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  3. Mar 19, 2006 #2


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  4. Mar 19, 2006 #3


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    Sure. As an exercise, try deriving the quotient rule using that trick.
  5. Mar 19, 2006 #4
    yes, they are the same. if you need not simplify, i think that way is even easier.
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