Proof about orders of elements. Ord(a)=ord(bab^-1).

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SUMMARY

The discussion provides a proof that the order of an element \( a \) in a group \( G \) is equal to the order of the element \( bab^{-1} \), denoted as \( \text{ord}(a) = \text{ord}(bab^{-1}) \). The proof utilizes the properties of group elements and their orders, demonstrating that if \( a^n = e \), then \( (bab^{-1})^n = e \) as well. The proof is structured in two parts, showing both implications of the equality, and concludes with a verification of the definitions of order in group theory.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of group theory concepts, particularly the definition of the order of an element.
  • Familiarity with group notation and operations, including inverses and identity elements.
  • Knowledge of algebraic manipulation within groups.
  • Basic experience with mathematical proofs, especially in abstract algebra.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of group homomorphisms and their effects on element orders.
  • Explore the implications of conjugation in groups and its relation to element orders.
  • Learn about cyclic groups and their structure to understand element orders better.
  • Investigate the concept of normal subgroups and their significance in group theory.
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for students and researchers in abstract algebra, particularly those studying group theory, as well as mathematicians interested in the properties of group elements and their orders.

jmjlt88
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Prove ord(a) = ord (bab-1).

Attempt at the proof.

Proof:

Let G be a group and let a,b ε G.


(=>)
Suppose ord(a)=n. That is, an=e. We wish to that the ord(bab-1)=n. If we take an=e and multiply on the left by b and on the right by b-1 then, we have,

(1) an=e
(2) banb-1=beb-1
(3) banb-1=e.
Hence, we have the fact that,
(4) an=e=banb-1.
Now, if we expand (bab-1)n, we get,
(5) bab-1bab-1bab-1..bab-1=banb-1.
But, banb-1 = e by our algebra in (1) - (4). Thus, (bab-1)n=banb-1 = e and ord(bab-1)=n.

(<=)
Let ord(bab-1)=n. That is, (bab-1)n=e. But, as it was shown in (5), (bab-1)n=banb-1 = e. Using the fact that banb-1 = e, we multiply on the left by b-1 and on the right by b and obtain that an=e. Hence, ord(a)=n.

QED


How does it look? Thanks!
 
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First of all, you can reduce everything you have done in "=>" to one line basically:

(bab-1)n=banb-1 = beb-1 (since ord a = n) = e.

But be aware that this has not yet shown ord(bab-1) = n. ord g is defined to be the smallest non-negative integer such that ...

Same goes for "<=".
 

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