jmjlt88
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Prove ord(a) = ord (bab-1).
Attempt at the proof.
Proof:
Let G be a group and let a,b ε G.
(=>)
Suppose ord(a)=n. That is, an=e. We wish to that the ord(bab-1)=n. If we take an=e and multiply on the left by b and on the right by b-1 then, we have,
(1) an=e
(2) banb-1=beb-1
(3) banb-1=e.
Hence, we have the fact that,
(4) an=e=banb-1.
Now, if we expand (bab-1)n, we get,
(5) bab-1bab-1bab-1..bab-1=banb-1.
But, banb-1 = e by our algebra in (1) - (4). Thus, (bab-1)n=banb-1 = e and ord(bab-1)=n.
(<=)
Let ord(bab-1)=n. That is, (bab-1)n=e. But, as it was shown in (5), (bab-1)n=banb-1 = e. Using the fact that banb-1 = e, we multiply on the left by b-1 and on the right by b and obtain that an=e. Hence, ord(a)=n.
QED
How does it look? Thanks!
Attempt at the proof.
Proof:
Let G be a group and let a,b ε G.
(=>)
Suppose ord(a)=n. That is, an=e. We wish to that the ord(bab-1)=n. If we take an=e and multiply on the left by b and on the right by b-1 then, we have,
(1) an=e
(2) banb-1=beb-1
(3) banb-1=e.
Hence, we have the fact that,
(4) an=e=banb-1.
Now, if we expand (bab-1)n, we get,
(5) bab-1bab-1bab-1..bab-1=banb-1.
But, banb-1 = e by our algebra in (1) - (4). Thus, (bab-1)n=banb-1 = e and ord(bab-1)=n.
(<=)
Let ord(bab-1)=n. That is, (bab-1)n=e. But, as it was shown in (5), (bab-1)n=banb-1 = e. Using the fact that banb-1 = e, we multiply on the left by b-1 and on the right by b and obtain that an=e. Hence, ord(a)=n.
QED
How does it look? Thanks!