Proof for the greatest integer function inequality

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the greatest integer function inequality, specifically the theorem stating that for every real number x, there exists a unique integer n such that n ≤ x < n + 1. Participants are exploring various approaches to establish this theorem.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to use a set of real numbers and properties of bounded sets to prove the inequality. Some participants question the clarity of this approach, particularly regarding the definition of the set S and its properties. Others suggest utilizing the Archimedean property to find integers related to x.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, with some providing hints and guidance rather than complete solutions. There is a recognition of the need to clarify definitions and assumptions, particularly concerning the set S and its elements. The discussion reflects a mix of interpretations and attempts to construct a proof.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on not providing complete solutions, as participants are encouraged to derive the proof independently. The Archimedean property is a focal point of discussion, with some participants expressing uncertainty about its application in this context.

wellorderingp
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Can anyone help me prove the greatest integer function inequality-
n≤ x <n+1 for some x belongs to R and n is a unique integer

this is how I tried to prove it-
consider a set S of Real numbers which is bounded below
say min(S)=inf(S)=n so n≤x

by the property x<inf(S) + h we have x< n+1 for some h=1
thus we get n≤ x <n+1

Is this method correct? and can I use the archimedian property to prove the above,how?
 
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I suppose you mean the following theorem:

To every real number x, there exists a unique integer n such that n ≤ x < n+1.

I don't undertand your attemped proof. What is S, and why is its supremum an integer?

It is a good idea to use the Archimedian property here: Given x, there is always an integer m such that m*1>x. Hence, there is a smallest such integer...
 
Yes,I mean that theorem.
I am not able to solve it using Archimedian property.Can you work out the entire proof please?
 
wellorderingp said:
Can you work out the entire proof please?

We don't do that in this forum. We only give hints to allow you to solve the problem on your own.

So listen to the hints and questions of Erland and see if you can come up with a proof.
 
Okay so finally I came up with something sensible

Consider a set S defined by n>x for some integer n and any real x
This set is non empty since there exist such n and x by archimedian property.
Since the set is non empty it will have a least element by wop,let that be l
So l>x since it is in S
l-1<l and it contradicts its minimality so, l-1 won't belong to S
Hence we get l-1<=x<l
= l<=x<l+1

Now is it correct?
 

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