Proof I don't even know how to start

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a relationship involving a Fourier sine series, specifically the coefficients of the series represented by the function f(x) = a_{1}\sin(x) + a_{2}\sin(2x) + ... + a_{N}\sin(Nx). The original poster expresses uncertainty about how to begin the proof and seeks guidance without requesting a complete solution.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants suggest substituting the expression for f(x) into the integral and using trigonometric identities. There is also a discussion about the correctness of the function's representation and the implications of the integral of sine functions over the specified interval.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered guidance on how to approach the problem, including suggestions to consider specific properties of sine integrals. The discussion reflects a mix of interpretations and attempts to clarify the setup of the problem.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of potential confusion regarding the notation used for the integral, as well as the original poster's uncertainty about the function's definition. The discussion also touches on the assumption that the integral of sine functions evaluates to zero under certain conditions.

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Homework Statement



Let f(x) = a_{1}\sinx + a_2\sin(2x) + ... + a_Nsin(Nx) where N\geq1 is an integer and a_1, ... , a_N \in\Re. Prove that for every n = 1, ... , N we have
a_n = \frac{1}{\pi}\int{f(x)\sin(nx)dx}
with the integral going from -\pi to \pi (sorry I don't know how to write definite integrals in LaTeX)

For some reason, it's not showing the integral sign. Before \sin(nx)dx there should be an integral sign followed by f(x), but it's not showing up.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



I have no idea how to even start it. I'm not looking for the solution, just a push in the right direction. Your answers to all of my other questions of late have been spot on and for that I thank everyone who has responded. Thanks in advance for your help with this problem!
 
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Try substituting the expression for f(x) into

\frac{1}{\pi} \int f(x) sin(nx) dx

and using trig identities. You will save yourself some work if you keep in mind that

\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} sin(ax) dx = 0

for any real number a.
 
First is f(x) really equal to what you have? f(x)= a_1 sin(x)+ a_2 sin(2x)+ \cdot\cdot\cdot a_N sin(Nx) would make more sense!

Assuming that is what it should be, look at
\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(x)sin(nx)dx= \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^\pi (a_1+a_2sin(2x)+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ a_Nsin(Nx))sin(nx) dx
= \frac{1}{\pi}a_1\int_{-\pi}^\pi} sin(x)sin(nx)dx+ \frac{1}{\pi}a_2\int_{-\pi}^\pi}sin(2x)sin(nx)dx+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ \frac{1}{\pi}a_N \int_{-\pi}^\pi} sin(Nx))sin(nx)dx



And also consider the value of
\int_{-\pi}^\pi} sin(mx)sin(nx)dx[/itex] for m= n and for m\ne n.
 
Oh, I proved the second part of your post in part a of the problem and did not realize that it was involved in any way; thanks!
 

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