Proof that a limit is less than or equal to zero

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that if a function f is differentiable on an interval D containing 0, with f(0)=0 and f(x) having opposite signs to x for all x in D except 0, then the derivative at zero, f'(0), is less than or equal to zero. The proof begins with the inequality \(\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}\leq0\) for all x in D except 0. The challenge lies in transitioning from this inequality to the limit statement \(\lim_{x\rightarrow0} \frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}\leq0\).

PREREQUISITES
  • Differentiability of functions
  • Understanding of limits and continuity
  • Knowledge of the epsilon-delta definition of limits
  • Basic properties of inequalities
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This discussion is beneficial for students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on limits and differentiability, as well as educators seeking to clarify these concepts for their students.

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Homework Statement



Proof that, If [itex]f[/itex] is a function such that

(1) [itex]f[/itex] is differentiable at (open) the interval [itex]D[/itex],

(2) [itex]D[/itex] includes [itex]0[/itex] and [itex]f(0)=0[/itex], and

(3) for all [itex]x[/itex] in [itex]D[/itex] other than [itex]0[/itex], [itex]f(x)[/itex] and [itex]x[/itex] have opposite signs

Then

[itex]f'(0)\leq0[/itex]

Homework Equations



None.

The Attempt at a Solution



I managed to prove that for all [itex]x[/itex] in [itex]D[/itex] other than [itex]0[/itex]

[itex]\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}\leq0[/itex]

I don't know how to get from there to the fact that

[itex]lim _{x\rightarrow0} \frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}\leq0[/itex]Any help would be very appreciated. Thanks.
 
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If for some function [itex]g(x)[/itex] we have [itex]lim _{x\rightarrow0}g(x)=L>0[/itex], then can you argue that [itex]g(x)[/itex] must be positive in some (-δ,δ)\{0} by considering a certain ε>0?
 
Last edited:
Okay, I got it. If the limit equals [itex]k[/itex] and [itex]k>0[/itex], then

[itex]\forallε>0\:\existsδ>0 (|x|<δ \rightarrow \left|\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}-k\right|<ε)[/itex]

implies (for [itex]ε=k/2[/itex]) that

[itex]\existsδ>0 (|x|<δ \rightarrow \frac{k}{2}<\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}<\frac{3k}{2})[/itex]

But [itex]\frac{k}{2}<\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}<\frac{3k}{2}[/itex] cannot be true at [itex](0,δ)[/itex], because it would contradict statement (3).

Thanks!
 

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