Hello there,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I am just starting quantum physics with the textbook by griffiths. My lecturer has told me that the set of functions representing stationary states in Hilbert space forms an orthogonal set. He was however unable to prove it. Furthermore he said that it is not always the case, but didn't know when it was true, just that it often was. From the way Griffiths is writing, it seems perhaps that he isn't sure either.

So my question: When is the set of stationary states orthogonal in with respect to the ordinary relevant inner product

$$

\langle f | g \rangle = \int f^*g\,dx

$$

Can I spot it from the underlaying physics? Or math? It would be good if I could work out when I work with an orthonormal set without having to explicitly integrate to find out.

Hope you are able to help.

Thanks.

Marius

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Proof that the set of stationary states are orthonormal?

Loading...

Similar Threads for Proof stationary states |
---|

A Does the Frauchiger-Renner Theorem prove only MWI is correct |

I A Proof of Kaku (8.18). |

I Bound and Stationary States |

I Orbital electrons in stationary states? |

I Representations of the Poincaré group: question in a proof |

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**