Proof the lim n^(1/n) using a hint

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The limit lim n→∞ n^(1/n) converges to 1, as established through the definition αn = n^(1/n) - 1 and the application of the Binomial Formula. The inequality (1 + αn)^n ≥ 1 + (n(n-1)/2)α2n is used to demonstrate the relationship between αn and the limit. The discussion emphasizes the importance of understanding the Binomial Theorem in this context, specifically how it applies to the limit evaluation. The confusion surrounding the hint and its relevance to the problem is addressed, clarifying the necessary steps to prove the limit.

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1. Prove that

limn→∞ n1/n
2. Hint: Define αn=n^1/n-1 and use Binomial Formula to show that for each index n, n=(1+αn)n ≥1+(n(n-1)/2)α2n
3. It is clear to me that the limit is 1, and I thought that if I prove that 1/n goes to 0, then I can just say the limit of n goes to 1 and keep going with my life, but I am supposed to use the hint that is confusing me.

My questions are mostly regarding the hint:

1) It perfectly makes sense to try lim αn=n1/n-1 to make it zero. I am fine with that, and I perfectly understand that.

2) I am unable to understand why the hint is there and how it is related to the problem at all.
Assigning n=1,2,3 (I did it with excel) to the hint, I got that for each term the inequality is true. I still do not know at all why I should use it or how it is related with this problem.

3) They say to use the binomial formula, which I guess they mean on the hint and to do something like this:

(1+αn)n) ≥∑1+(n(n-1)/2)α2n

Is this right?


Please help me to understand the problem, it is driving me nuts. Thank you very much.

Homework Statement

 
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I don't understand, why you put a sum symbol in your item 3).

The binomial theorem reads
(a+b)^n=\sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n}{k} a^k b^{n-k},
where the binomial coefficients are defined as
\binom{n}{k}=\frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}.
 
vanhees71 said:
I don't understand, why you put a sum symbol in your item 3).

The binomial theorem reads
(a+b)^n=\sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n}{k} a^k b^{n-k},
where the binomial coefficients are defined as
\binom{n}{k}=\frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}.

Yes, sorry, that was a typo. But still, I do not know the relationship. Let me fix it.
 

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