Ok, I'll give a sketch of the proof
First, convince yourself that
\int_0^\infty e^{-t^2}dt=\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}
You will need this several times.
So we have the following operator
H:\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R})\rightarrow \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}): g \rightarrow H(g)
With
H(g):\mathbb{R}^+\rightarrow \mathbb{R}: x\rightarrow 1+\int_0^x e^{-t^2}g(tx)dt
Where \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}) is the set of all BOUNDED continuous functions of R+ to R. (You need to check that H is well defined, i.e. that H(g) is bounded and continuous if g is in \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R})). We need the functions to be bounded, in order to put following metric on \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}):
d_\infty(f,g)=\sup_{x\in \mathbb{R}^+}{d(f(x),g(x))}
So this makes \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}) a metric space. In order to apply the fixed point theorem of Banach, we need to know that this space is complete (this is easy to check, although the answer will probably be in your course). We also need to show that H is a contraction, i.e. there exists a k<1
d_\infty(H(f),H(g))\leq k d_\infty(f,g)
So, applying the Banach fixed point theorem, yields the existence of a function f in B(R+,R)
1, H(1), H(H(1)), H(H(H(1))),... \rightarrow f
This function f is the unique fixed point of the operator H, and thus it satisfies
f(x)=1+\int_0^x e^{-t^2}f(tx)dt
So, this function is indeed the one you wanted. Since f is in \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}), we have that f is continuous and bounded.