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If we look at the graphic,Meden Agan said:Sad. I can't believe that is the only possible solution to the integral.
then we see an almost linear behavior with slope around ##-1## (or so) when we approach ##\alpha=0## and a very strong curvature toward ##\alpha=a## with an infinite slope. So any substitution ##\beta=p(\alpha)## has to depend on where we are. It's not only non-linear, it also has to switch from almost linear to almost a square root. So what could be a proper scaling of ##\alpha,## making the curve integrable?
The origin of that behavior can be seen if we express ##f(\alpha)(f(- \alpha)## in the original variable ##x,##
$$
f(\alpha)f(-\alpha)=\dfrac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}
$$
so maybe this expression is more promising than the trigonometric version.
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