Prove Bounded and Continuous Function

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that a specific function defined by an integral equation is continuous and bounded over the positive real numbers. The function is given as f(x) = 1 + ∫₀ˣ e^{-t²} f(xt) dt for all x ≥ 0.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of fixed point theorems and operators to approach the problem. There is mention of defining an operator H and exploring its properties, including continuity and boundedness. Some participants express confusion about the existence of the function and the application of contraction mappings.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing with various approaches being explored. Some participants have provided insights into the use of fixed point theorems and the properties of the operator H, while others are seeking clarification on specific steps and concepts related to the proof.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of showing that the operator H is well-defined and that it maps bounded continuous functions to bounded continuous functions. There is also a focus on establishing the completeness of the space of bounded functions and the need for H to be a contraction to apply the Banach fixed point theorem.

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Homework Statement



Prove that the following function is continuous and bounded in R+

Homework Equations



f(x) = 1 + \int_0^x e^{-t^2} f(xt) dt \qquad \forall x \geq 0

The Attempt at a Solution



I thought of using Taylor Formula, but the integral is t instead of x, so now i have no idea what to do. Help please?
 
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Hmm, at first it doesn't even is clear why such a function f exists...

So at first, I would define the following function

H(g):\mathbb{R}^+\rightarrow \mathbb{R}:x\rightarrow 1+\int_{0}^x e^{-t^2}g(tx)dt

Then H would be an operator

H: \mathcal{C}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R})\rightarrow \mathcal{C}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R})

The function f would then be the fixed point of H. In fact we can (probably) prove that the sequence 1, H(1), H(H(1)), H(H(H(1))), H(H(H(H(1)))), ... converges uniformly to this fixed point f. The only thing we need to do now is show that at every step, the function is bounded and continuous. I'll leave that up to you, say something if you need more help...
 
I think you certainly got the part about using fixed point right, because we just learned 3 fixed point theorems tarski, banach and brouwer. Someone told me to try contraction on the function but, sorry, i am all lost. Can you tell me more about it? Like giving some steps but leaving out some intermediate proofs.
 
Ok, I'll give a sketch of the proof

First, convince yourself that

\int_0^\infty e^{-t^2}dt=\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}

You will need this several times.

So we have the following operator

H:\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R})\rightarrow \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}): g \rightarrow H(g)

With

H(g):\mathbb{R}^+\rightarrow \mathbb{R}: x\rightarrow 1+\int_0^x e^{-t^2}g(tx)dt

Where \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}) is the set of all BOUNDED continuous functions of R+ to R. (You need to check that H is well defined, i.e. that H(g) is bounded and continuous if g is in \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R})). We need the functions to be bounded, in order to put following metric on \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}):

d_\infty(f,g)=\sup_{x\in \mathbb{R}^+}{d(f(x),g(x))}

So this makes \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}) a metric space. In order to apply the fixed point theorem of Banach, we need to know that this space is complete (this is easy to check, although the answer will probably be in your course). We also need to show that H is a contraction, i.e. there exists a k<1

d_\infty(H(f),H(g))\leq k d_\infty(f,g)

So, applying the Banach fixed point theorem, yields the existence of a function f in B(R+,R)

1, H(1), H(H(1)), H(H(H(1))),... \rightarrow f

This function f is the unique fixed point of the operator H, and thus it satisfies

f(x)=1+\int_0^x e^{-t^2}f(tx)dt

So, this function is indeed the one you wanted. Since f is in \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}), we have that f is continuous and bounded.
 
Last edited:
Thanks, I will take some time to digest this.

micromass said:
Ok, I'll give a sketch of the proof

First, convince yourself that

\int_0^\infty e^{-t^2}dt=\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}

You will need this several times.

So we have the following operator

H:\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R})\rightarrow \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}): g \rightarrow H(g)

With

H(g):\mathbb{R}^+\rightarrow \mathbb{R}: x\rightarrow 1+\int_0^x e^{-t^2}g(tx)dt

Where \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}) is the set of all BOUNDED continuous functions of R+ to R. (You need to check that H is well defined, i.e. that H(g) is bounded and continuous if g is in \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R})). We need the functions to be bounded, in order to put following metric on \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}):

d_\infty(f,g)=\sup_{x\in \mathbb{R}^+}{d(f(x),g(x))}

So this makes \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}) a metric space. In order to apply the fixed point theorem of Banach, we need to know that this space is complete (this is easy to check, although the answer will probably be in your course). We also need to show that H is a contraction, i.e. there exists a k<1

d_\infty(H(f),H(g))\leq k d_\infty(f,g)

So, applying the Banach fixed point theorem, yields the existence of a function f in B(R+,R)

1, H(1), H(H(1)), H(H(H(1))),... \rightarrow f

This function f is the unique fixed point of the operator H, and thus it satisfies

f(x)=1+\int_0^x e^{-t^2}f(tx)dt

So, this function is indeed the one you wanted. Since f is in \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^+,\mathbb{R}), we have that f is continuous and bounded.
 

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