Prove f is measurable on any closed set

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that if a function \( f \) is measurable on \( \mathbb{R} \) and \( C \) is any closed set, then the preimage \( f^{-1}(C) \) is measurable. The context involves concepts of measurability and properties of closed and open sets.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the relationship between closed sets and their complements, noting that the complement of a closed set is an open set. There is an attempt to connect this to the measurability of open sets, specifically through countable unions of open intervals.

Discussion Status

Some participants express uncertainty about how to formalize their arguments rigorously, while others suggest that the reasoning presented is sufficient. There appears to be a mix of confidence in the foundational concepts and a desire for more structured reasoning.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention the need to assume certain properties, such as the characterization of open sets as countable unions of intervals, which may not have been explicitly proven in the discussion.

jinsing
Messages
29
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Prove if $f$ is measurable on R and C is any closed set, f^{-1}(C) is measurable.

Homework Equations



Definition of measurability, closed sets etc.

The Attempt at a Solution



I've been trying for a while to get this proof, but I seem to just end up stuck at the beginning. I think I want to point out that the complement of a closed set is an open set, and open sets are countable unions of open intervals, which are themselves measurable. But I'm not too sure, and I'd sure appreciate a gentle push in the right direction.

Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
jinsing said:
I think I want to point out that the complement of a closed set is an open set, and open sets are countable unions of open intervals, which are themselves measurable.

Yes, that is correct. So what is bothering you??
 
I guess I need help formalizing the argument. Would I just assume the hypotheses, point out by definition C' is an open set, and then just mention "open sets are countable unions of open intervals, which are measurable?" Doesn't seem too rigorous..
 
It's rigorous enough for me. (assuming you proved the things like any open set is the countable union of intervals).
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
6K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
5K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
4K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K