Prove, if p and q are distinct prime numbers

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that if p and q are distinct prime numbers, then sqrt(p/q) is irrational. Participants explore the implications of prime factorization and properties of integers in relation to this proof.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the initial assumption that sqrt(p/q) can be expressed as a fraction of integers and explore the implications of this assumption. They examine the relationship between the integers involved and the properties of prime numbers, particularly focusing on how one can derive contradictions from the assumption of rationality.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active with participants providing insights and clarifications on the mathematical reasoning involved. There is a focus on understanding the implications of prime divisibility and how it leads to contradictions in the context of the problem. Some participants are seeking further clarification on specific steps in the reasoning process.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference Euclid's lemma and its relevance to the proof, indicating a shared understanding of foundational concepts in number theory. There is an ongoing exploration of the assumptions made in the problem setup and how they affect the proof's direction.

ayusuf
Messages
19
Reaction score
0
Prove, if p and q are distinct prime numbers, then sqrt(p/q) is irrational. I know how to prove that if p is a distinct prime number, then sqrt(p) is irrational. From there let sqrt(p) = q/r and then prove but for this I'm stuck. Do we let sqrt(p/q) = (a/b)/(c/d).Thanks.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org


Assume not and that sqrt(p/q) is equal to a/b, for integers a, b and in lowest terms..
Then you can say a2q = b2p. This implies that p divides a2q, but q is prime, so p divides a2. Since p is prime and divides a2=(a)(a), we know it divides a. So write a as a multiple of p and write out your equation and rearrange to isolate b2 (or b). Can you find a contradiction here?
 


So from a2q = b2p which implies that p divides a2. I understand up to there but when you say write a as a multiple of p I get confused. Could you elaborate a little bit more on that? Thanks.
 


If p divides a2 then p divides a (why? There is the famous fact that if p is prime and p divides ab then p divides a or p divides b).
So since p divides a, we can write out a=pc for some integer c.
Now, back to the original equation a2q = b2p
a=pc implies that p2c2q = b2p
Now, isolate b2 in this equation. Can you say anything about p dividing b here?
 


Okay now I understand what you meant by multiple but where are you getting that famous fact from? Okay so now if we isolate b2 in this equation we will have
b2 = pc2q and by taking the square root of both sides we'll have
b = sqrt(pc2q) = csqrt(pq).

Why would p divide b?
 


You have correctly isolated b2 but you do not need to reduce it.
b2 = pc2q means that b2 is a multiple of p, which means that p divides b2.
This implies that p divides b.
Now p divides a AND p divides b, contradicting that a/b was in lowest terms.

The famous fact (that prime p divides ab implies p divides a or p divides b) will be in the first few chapters of any number theory book. Here is a link: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euclid's_lemma. This fact is very important in number theory and even in group theory & ring theory so I would advise that you understand it.
 


The reason your saying b2 is a multiple of p is because c/d = k and if we isolate c we get c = dk. So in this c is b2, d is p and k is c2q right?

also how do go from p dividing b2 to p dividing b? Thanks.
 


ayusuf said:
The reason your saying b2 is a multiple of p is because c/d = k and if we isolate c we get c = dk. So in this c is b2, d is p and k is c2q right?

You yourself found the equation b2 = pc2q, which is the same thing as b2 = p(c2q), which means that b2 is equal to p times something. It doesn't get much clearer than that.

ayusuf said:
also how do go from p dividing b2 to p dividing b? Thanks.

b2 = bb and using the famous fact we see that p divides b.
 


Okay for the first part kind of what I was saying that c = dk. It's like saying 12 = 6*k where k = 2 right? I know it's pretty clear but I just want to make sure I fully digest this stuff.

Okay now for p divides b2 because according to Euclid's lemma it must divide one of the factors right? Thanks. I really appreciate your help.
 
  • #10


ayusuf said:
Okay for the first part kind of what I was saying that c = dk. It's like saying 12 = 6*k where k = 2 right? I know it's pretty clear but I just want to make sure I fully digest this stuff.

Yup.

ayusuf said:
Okay now for p divides b2 because according to Euclid's lemma it must divide one of the factors right? Thanks. I really appreciate your help.

Yes. p is prime and divides bb so by the lemma it divides b.
 

Similar threads

Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
30
Views
3K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
4K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
Replies
15
Views
4K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K