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Let ##f(x)## be an integrable function defined on ##[0,1]## with the following property: ##a=inf(f(x))\lt f(x) \lt b=sup(f(x))##. Prove ##a\lt \int_0^1f(x)dx \lt b##. It is obviously true, but how does one prove it?
The discussion centers on proving the property of an integrable function ##f(x)## defined on the interval ##[0,1]##, specifically that if ##a = \inf(f(x)) < f(x) < b = \sup(f(x))##, then it follows that ##a < \int_0^1 f(x) \, dx < b##. The Mean Value Theorem for integration is highlighted as a key tool, requiring a continuous function. The general version of the theorem, which involves a continuous function ##g## and an integrable function ##f##, is also mentioned as a potential approach to establish the inequality.
PREREQUISITESMathematicians, students of real analysis, and anyone interested in understanding the properties of integrable functions and their applications in calculus.
Mean value theorem for integration: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mean_value_theorem#Mean_value_theorems_for_integrationmathman said:Let ##f(x)## be an integrable function defined on ##[0,1]## with the following property: ##a=inf(f(x))\lt f(x) \lt b=sup(f(x))##. Prove ##a\lt \int_0^1f(x)dx \lt b##. It is obviously true, but how does one prove it?