Prove Integral of f in [0,1] with Homework Statement

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves a function defined on the interval [0,1] that takes the value 1 at points of the form 1/n for natural numbers n, and 0 elsewhere. The original poster seeks to prove or disprove two statements regarding the upper sum of the function and its integrability over the interval.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the definition of a division of the interval and the implications of the function's behavior at points 1/n. There are attempts to clarify the construction of partitions and upper sums, with some questioning the feasibility of covering an infinite set of points with finite partitions.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing guidance on how to approach the proof of the first statement. There are differing views on the correct interpretation of partitions and the method of covering points, indicating a productive exploration of the problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the constraints of needing finite partitions while dealing with an infinite set of points, which raises questions about the validity of certain approaches suggested in the discussion.

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Homework Statement


f is a function defined in [0,1] by:
If there's some n (natural number) so that x = 1/n then f(x) = 1
If not then f(x) = 0.
Prove or disprove:
1) For every E>0 there's some P (P is a division of [0,1], for example
{0,0.2,0.6,1}) so that S(P) < E (Where S(P) is the upper some of f(x) with the division P)

2)f in integrable in [0,1] and the integral is 0.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



1) True, because we can always choose A<E and: P={0,A,1/n,...,1/2,1} were 1/n is the smallest number of that type bigger than A. And then
S(P) =A < E

2)True, because if for every E>0 there's someP so that S(P) < E than the upper integral of f in [0,1] is 0. And since the lower integral is always bogger or equal to 0 (in this case) but smaller than the upper integral then the upper and lower integrals are both equal to 0 and so the integral exists and is 0.

Are thise right?
Thanks.
 
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{0,0.2,0.6,1} is not a division of [0,1]. It's a set of points in [0,1]. How do you mean this to be interpreted as a 'division'? What you want is to choose the width of an interval around 1/n (say r_n) in such a way that the sum of the r_n is less than E. There are many explicit ways to do this. Choose one.
 
When I wrote {0,0.2,0.6,1} I meant {[0,0.2].[0.2,0.6],[0.6,1]}.
 
daniel_i_l said:
When I wrote {0,0.2,0.6,1} I meant {[0,0.2].[0.2,0.6],[0.6,1]}.

Ok. The previous advice still stands. Put 'small intervals' around each of the points 1/n.
 
Thanks, and after I do what you said to prove that (1) is true, then does that also mean that (2) is true (as I explained in the answer to 2)?
 
daniel_i_l said:
Thanks, and after I do what you said to prove that (1) is true, then does that also mean that (2) is true (as I explained in the answer to 2)?

It sure does. You then have that the upper and lower sum are both zero. So what's your choice for a unit interval division. You can be pretty explicit.
 
Dick said:
Ok. The previous advice still stands. Put 'small intervals' around each of the points 1/n.
Sorry to resurrect an old thread, but I have the same problem as the OP's second one, and haven't yet found a good solution for it yet. But I don't think what you suggested here is correct, since the set containing 1/n is infinite, whereas the partitions need to be finite sets. So you can't really put small intervals around each 1/n. It would be great, if you could, and that was my first thought when approaching the problem, as well, but I don't think you can.

Any other suggestions perhaps?
 
Ryker said:
Sorry to resurrect an old thread, but I have the same problem as the OP's second one, and haven't yet found a good solution for it yet. But I don't think what you suggested here is correct, since the set containing 1/n is infinite, whereas the partitions need to be finite sets. So you can't really put small intervals around each 1/n. It would be great, if you could, and that was my first thought when approaching the problem, as well, but I don't think you can.

Any other suggestions perhaps?

Nope. Same suggestion. Try an interval size like 1/2^(n+k) and then let k->infinity to shrink the partition. If you need a finite partition then you just have to be a little fussier. Cover the first N points with intervals of those sizes and then cover the remaining points with one of size 1/N. Now let N->infinity as well.
 
Dick said:
Nope. Same suggestion. Try an interval size like 1/2^(n+k) and then let k->infinity to shrink the partition. If you need a finite partition then you just have to be a little fussier. Cover the first N points with intervals of those sizes and then cover the remaining points with one of size 1/N. Now let N->infinity as well.
Well, it's not me who needs a finite partition, it's the definition :smile:

Could you perhaps elaborate on your suggestion? When you say cover the first N points with intervals of those sizes, what size do you mean? Because I can't fix n (it's infinite), I can only fix k. And if I introduce N, as well, then I now have two variables, that are not dependent on one another. But then I can't take the limit, I can only let them approach infinity one at a time.
 
  • #10
Ryker said:
Well, it's not me who needs a finite partition, it's the definition :smile:

Could you perhaps elaborate on your suggestion? When you say cover the first N points with intervals of those sizes, what size do you mean? Because I can't fix n (it's infinite), I can only fix k. And if I introduce N, as well, then I now have two variables, that are not dependent on one another. But then I can't take the limit, I can only let them approach infinity one at a time.

Ok, put k=N. Surround the point 1/n with an interval of size 1/2^(n+N) for n from 1 to N. That's finite, yes? The last point is 1/N. So you can include the rest of the points in an interval of size 1/N. That's one more interval. Still finite. Now take N to infinity.
 
  • #11
Now you're talking :biggrin: Thanks, I think this should work now. I had a similar idea, but couldn't quite wrap my head around how to put it formally.
 

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