# Prove its abelian is this proof correct

## Homework Statement

(ab)$^{n}$= a$^{n}$b$^{n}$ for any 3 consecutive numbers n $\in$N

## Homework Equations

for an abelian group G, ab=ba $\forall$a,b$\in$G
if a$\in$G, a has an inverse element also $\in$G such that aa$^{-1}$ = e

## The Attempt at a Solution

doesnt look right but heres the attempt

http://pics.livejournal.com/jackdnutter/pic/000013d1 [Broken]

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## Answers and Replies

that looks fishy....

yeah it does, which is why I asked. Whats wrong with it though? if someone could point out the flawed reasoning maybe it'd better my understanding of group theory.
Thanks for the link, the (ba)$^{∞}$ proof was hilarious