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Prove its abelian is this proof correct

  1. Mar 17, 2012 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
    (ab)[itex]^{n}[/itex]= a[itex]^{n}[/itex]b[itex]^{n}[/itex] for any 3 consecutive numbers n [itex]\in[/itex]N

    2. Relevant equations
    for an abelian group G, ab=ba [itex]\forall[/itex]a,b[itex]\in[/itex]G
    if a[itex]\in[/itex]G, a has an inverse element also [itex]\in[/itex]G such that aa[itex]^{-1}[/itex] = e


    3. The attempt at a solution
    doesnt look right but heres the attempt

    http://pics.livejournal.com/jackdnutter/pic/000013d1 [Broken]
     
    Last edited by a moderator: May 5, 2017
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 17, 2012 #2
  4. Mar 17, 2012 #3
    yeah it does, which is why I asked. Whats wrong with it though? if someone could point out the flawed reasoning maybe it'd better my understanding of group theory.
    Thanks for the link, the (ba)[itex]^{∞}[/itex] proof was hilarious
     
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