Prove limit of improper Integral is 1

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The problem involves evaluating the limit of an improper integral as \( n \) approaches infinity, specifically showing that \(\lim_{n \to \infty}(\frac{1}{n!}\int_{1}^{\infty}x^n\frac{1}{e^x} dx )=1\). The context is within the study of improper integrals and limits in calculus.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of integration by parts to evaluate the improper integral and express concerns about the behavior of the resulting terms as \( b \) approaches infinity. There are questions about the inclusion of the factorial term and how it affects the limit. Some participants are exploring the potential for summing parts of the integration process.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing hints and suggestions for further exploration. There is no clear consensus yet, as various interpretations and approaches are being considered, including the potential for repeated integration by parts and the implications of the factorial in the limit.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of improper integrals and limits, with some expressing uncertainty about the convergence of the integral and the role of the factorial in the limit process. There is a hint that the problem may relate to the series expansion of \( e \).

sinClair
Messages
22
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Show \mathop{\lim}\limits_{n \to \infty}(\frac{1}{n!}\int_{1}^{\infty}x^n\frac{1}{e^x} dx )=1


Homework Equations


The hint is that e=\mathop{\lim}\limits_{n \to \infty}\sum_{k=0}^{n}1/k!


The Attempt at a Solution


First I wrote out the improper integral as limit of a proper integral. Then I tried to integrate by parts with u=x^n dv=e^-xdx...which eventually gets that proper integral to be 1/e-b^n/e^b+n\int_{1}^{b}\frac{1}{e^x}x^(n-1)dx

But even when I take limit b->infinity of this remaining integral either it's going to exist and be finite in which case when i take n->infinity it will be infinite or else it dosn't exist or is not finite in which case the original integral is not improperly integral. I tried using u=e^-x and dv=x^n with little success as well--did I make a mistake somewhere here?

Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
sinClair said:
1/e-b^n/e^b+n\int_{1}^{b}\frac{1}{e^x}x^(n-1)dx.

Hi sinClair! :smile:

You haven't included the 1/n! :
\frac{1/e-b^n/e^b}{n!}\,+\,\int_{1}^{b}\frac{x^{n-1}\,e^{-x}}{(n-1)!}dx​

… and then you can keep doing it again … :smile:
 
Are you thinking that you just keep on integrating by parts and then that will yield a sum that will be e? I'm having trouble summing up the uv part of the integration... I mean when i do it again I get -b^n*e^-b+e^-1+n(-e^-b*b^n-1+e^-1+integral...) this sums up...?
 
Hi sinClair! :smile:

I haven't actually cheked it, but from:
tiny-tim said:
\frac{1/e-b^n/e^b}{n!}\,+\,\int_{1}^{b}\frac{x^{n-1}\,e^{-x}}{(n-1)!}dx​

don't you eventually get something like
e^{-1}\sum\frac{1}{n!}\,-\,e^{-b}\sum\frac{b^n}{n!}​
? :smile:
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K