Prove Sequence Convergence: {xn} Goes to Zero

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving the convergence of a sequence of positive numbers {xn} to zero, given a specific condition on the ratio of consecutive terms. The context is within the study of sequences and limits in mathematical analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of the condition on the ratio of consecutive terms and explore the relationship between the sequence and the limit of c^n as n approaches infinity. There is an attempt to connect the behavior of the sequence to the squeeze theorem.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants sharing insights and confirming their understanding of the relationships involved. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of the squeeze theorem, but there is no explicit consensus on the final proof.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of the problem statement and are exploring the implications of the given conditions without providing a complete solution.

scooterboot1
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Homework Statement


Suppose {xn} is a sequence of positive numbers for which there exists c, 0<c<1, such that ([x][/n+1])/([x][/n])<c for all n in Z+. Prove that [x][/n] goes to zero.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Let the first term of {xn} be x, where n=1. Then by the given, [x][/n+1]/[x][/n]<1, therefore, [x][/1]>[x][/2]>[x][/3]>...>[x][/n]>[x][/n+1], hence sup{[x][/n]} = [x][/1].
By the given, inf{[x][/n]}=0 so {xn} is bounded and strictly decreasing. We know a monotone sequence converges if and only if it is bounded, but I am having trouble proving that {xn} goes to zero.
 
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Do you know why lim n->infinity of c^n goes to 0? Hint: take the log.
 
I understand why lim n -> ∞ c^n = 0, but I don't understand how it relates to the problem. I need to determine why {xn} goes to zero
 
x1<c*x0. x2<c*x1<c*(c*x0)=c^2*x0. x3<c*x2<c*(c^2*x0)=c^3*x0. Following?
 
since i can show that c^n*x0>xn and since c^n -> 0 then I can use the squeeze theorem to show that {xn} goes to zero...
just want to make sure I made sense of that correctly
 
scooterboot1 said:
since i can show that c^n*x0>xn and since c^n -> 0 then I can use the squeeze theorem to show that {xn} goes to zero...
just want to make sure I made sense of that correctly

Sure. That's it.
 

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