Prove Surjective function (R:reals) with |f(x)-f(y)|>k|x-y|

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that a continuous function \( f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \) that satisfies the condition \( |f(x) - f(y)| \geq k|x - y| \) for some \( k > 0 \) is surjective. Participants are exploring the implications of this condition on the function's properties.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the injectivity of the function and its implications for surjectivity. There are suggestions to consider the closed image of the function and the behavior of \( f(x) \) as \( x \) approaches infinity. Some participants question the correctness of the injectivity proof and explore contradictions arising from assuming the function is not bijective.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various approaches being proposed. Some participants have offered informal ideas for proving surjectivity, while others express uncertainty about the correctness of their reasoning. There is no explicit consensus on the best approach yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the definitions of injective and surjective functions, and there is acknowledgment of potential confusion regarding these concepts. The continuity of the function and its implications are also under consideration.

math8
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(R:reals)
Let f:R-->R be continuous and satisfy |f(x)-f(y)|>or eq. to k|x-y| for all x, y in R and some k>0. Show that f is surjective.

I can show that f is injective: let f(x) = f(y), hence k|x-y|< or eq. to 0, thus x=y.

I had a suggestion that it might be helpful to show that f has closed image. But I don't see how to work with that.
I know that f is surjective if for each y in R there is an x in R such that f(x)=y.
I don't see how to proceed.
 
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Well, assuming the function is injective (I'm not great with these proofs so I'm not sure yours is correct) and f is also surjective, then f is a bijection; hence, f must have a have a one to one correspondance. Now suppose f is not bijective, then there must be some value f(x) = f(y) where y > x (for definiteness), can you show how this contradicts your initial conditions?
 
This isn't a very difficult proof. Consider f(-x), f(0) and f(x) while x goes to infinity.
 
Crap, I mixed my definitions up. Sorry math8!

Well, here's my idea for a proof for surjection (really this time). Suppose f is not surjective. Then, since f is continuous, as x -> infinity, f(x) -> N (or at least varies between values in some finite interval). Now we fix y such that y = 0 and f(y) = C. Therefore, abs(N - C) >= k lim (x -> infinity) abs(x) which cannot be true. Use a similar approach to completely show f is surjective (I think it should work, though my approach is a quite informal). Again, I'm really sorry!
 

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