Prove that G has an element of order 2.

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SUMMARY

In the discussion, the group G is analyzed to demonstrate that |G| is even if and only if there exists an element of G with order 2. The proof begins by acknowledging that if an element g has order 2, then the order of the subgroup generated by g divides |G|, confirming |G| is even. Conversely, assuming |G| is even, it is concluded that the set of elements with order ≥ 3 must have an odd cardinality, leading to the existence of at least one element with order 2. The discussion emphasizes the uniqueness of inverses within the set of elements of order ≥ 3, supporting the conclusion.

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  • Familiarity with the definition of element order in groups
  • Knowledge of subgroup properties and cardinality
  • Basic understanding of inverse elements in group theory
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This discussion is beneficial for students of abstract algebra, particularly those studying group theory, as well as educators seeking to clarify concepts related to group order and subgroup properties.

Daron
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Homework Statement



Let G be a group of finite cardinality. By considering the size of the set {x ∈ G: x is of order ≥ 3} show that |G| is even iff there is an element of G with order 2.

Homework Equations



Perhaps Lagrange's Theorem

The Attempt at a Solution



It's obvious that if g ∈ G has order 2 then, since the subgroup generated by g has order dividing |G|, |G| must be even.

Now we assume |G| is even.
Considering the size of the set given, I have concluded that if the set has even cardinality, then there must be at least one g with order 2, and specifically an odd number of these elements. Otherwise G = [{x ∈ G: order of x ≥ 3} + 1] which is odd, and contradicts our assumption. But I'm not sure why the set has to have odd cardinality.

Footnote: the question uses notation o(x) to denote what I think is the order of x. It seems to make sense for earlier questions.
 
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Does this make sense?

Every element of {x ∈ G: order of x ≥ 3} is not equal to its inverse. So for every element of the set, we can find a distinct element of the set which is its inverse. As inverses are unique, these two elements will be inverses ONLY to each other. In this way the set can be divided into pairs of inverses, so is of even cardinality?

If that works, the rest of the proof is straightforward.
 

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