Prove that n^3-n is divisible by 6 for every integer n

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The discussion centers on proving that n^3-n is divisible by 6 for every integer n. Participants explore the factorization n^3-n = n(n-1)(n+1), which shows it consists of three consecutive integers, ensuring divisibility by 2. To establish divisibility by 3, they discuss Hall's factorization and the properties of consecutive integers, noting that among any three consecutive integers, at least one is divisible by 3. The conversation also touches on the division algorithm and the generalization of divisibility among consecutive integers. Ultimately, the proof hinges on demonstrating both divisibility by 2 and 3 to conclude that n^3-n is divisible by 6.
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Prove that n^3-n is divisible by 6 for every integer n. Is it induction to be used here?...
 
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n3-n= n(n2-1)= n(n-1)(n+1)= (n-1)(n)(n+1), three consecutive integers. What does that tell you?
 
Oh, My!...shame on me!
Now that I submitted this thread and can't delete it:
Is it generally right?:
If 6 divides n^3-n then, since divisibility is transitive and 2 divides 6 , 2 must also divide n^3-n. Let n be even then n^3 is even and n^3-n is also even. Let n be odd then n^3 is odd and hence n^3-n is even. Since every even number is divisible by 2 it follows that 6 divides n^3-n.
 
symplectic_manifold said:
If 6 divides n^3-n then, since divisibility is transitive and 2 divides 6 , 2 must also divide n^3-n. Let n be even then n^3 is even and n^3-n is also even. Let n be odd then n^3 is odd and hence n^3-n is even. Since every even number is divisible by 2 it follows that 6 divides n^3-n.

You're going at this backwards assuming 6 divides n^3-n then showing 2 divides it?

You've managed to show 2 divides n^3-n by considering n even or odd, but to show 6 divides n^3-n you need to also show 3 divides n^3-n. Consider Hall's factorization, can you show 3 divides (n-1)n(n+1) for any n?
 
Oh sorry, thanks, HallsofIvy, you seem to have won the race!...posted a few minutes earlier...I didn't see it. :)

n3-n= n(n2-1)= n(n-1)(n+1)= (n-1)(n)(n+1), three consecutive integers. What does that tell you?

oh that was even more easier! nice...that n^3-n is always even?...
 
You've managed to show 2 divides n^3-n by considering n even or odd, but to show 6 divides n^3-n you need to also show 3 divides n^3-n. Consider Hall's factorization, can you show 3 divides (n-1)n(n+1) for any n?

...now that was my problem...how can I show that 3 divides n^3-n?...I need to show that the sum of the digits is divisible by 3...but the number is encoded in a formula!...so what can I do?

I don't have an idea of the Hall's factorization...could you tell me more about it or post me a link to a resource?

well, this is a problem at the very beginning of Nathanson's Elementary Methods in Number Theory, which I've just started reading...since I have no idea of number theory. It actually has no prerequisites for this problem except transitivity, division algorithm and induction principle...well there is also a theorem about an m-adic representation of numbers...but I don't think it needs to be used here...
 
Here's how you could show n^3-n is divisible by 2 using Hall's factorization:

n^3-n=(n-1)n(n+1). So for any n, we must have both n-1 and n dividing n^3-n. n-1 and n are consequetive integers, hence one of them is divisible by 2. Therefore n^3-n is divisible by 2.

Does this give you any ideas on how to handle the 3 case?
 
Great!...Can I generalise it by saying that among any n successive integers there is exactly one divisible by n?...What is a formal proof for this?
 
symplectic_manifold said:
Great!...Can I generalise it by saying that among any n successive integers there is exactly one divisible by n?...What is a formal proof for this?

That's correct. n successive integers starting at m look like m, m+1, ..., m+n-1. Use the division algorithm to write m=n*q+r, where 0<r<=n (note I've changed r slightly from the usual form). Then m+n-r is divisible by n and 0<=n-r<n so m+n-r is one of m, m+1, ..., m+n-1
 
  • #10
OK, but why did you change r?...It's 0<=r<=n-1, is it?...which gives 1<=n-r<=n and not 0<=n-r<n...cant get it. °_°
 
  • #11
...and doesn't that mean that m+1,...,m+n-1 are all divisible by n?
 
  • #12
symplectic_manifold said:
OK, but why did you change r?

Because it worked with the sequence I had already typed and seemed easier than going back to modify it. If you believe the division algorithm will give you an r with 0<=r<n you should be able to wrangle this to a different r with 0<r<=n, there's little difference.

Or you could change the consecutive numbers to m+1, m+2, ... m+n
 

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