Prove the sequence n/2^n converges to 0

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that the sequence \( x_n = \frac{n}{2^n} \) converges to 0. The context is within the study of sequences and their limits, particularly focusing on convergence criteria.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the potential application of the squeeze theorem and explore the relationship between \( n \) and \( 2^n \). There are attempts to establish bounds for the sequence and questions about the validity of certain inequalities. Some participants suggest using induction to prove relationships between terms of the sequence.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various approaches being considered. Some participants have provided guidance on proving monotonicity and boundedness, while others have pointed out potential errors in reasoning. There is an acknowledgment of the complexity of the problem, and multiple interpretations are being explored.

Contextual Notes

There are references to specific values of \( n \) and conditions under which certain inequalities hold. The discussion also touches on the importance of ensuring that sequences are not only bounded but also converge appropriately, highlighting the nuances in proving convergence.

naele
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Homework Statement


Show that x_n=\frac{n}{2^n} converges to 0

Homework Equations


Squeeze theorem?


The Attempt at a Solution


I've already proven that for n\geq 4, n^2 < 2^n which means that \frac{1}{n} < \frac{n}{2^n}. My desired approach is to use the squeeze theorem, but I cannot think of another sequence greater than n/2^n that would converge to 0.
 
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Can you show that (n + 1)/2n + 1 < n/2n for all n past some initial value? (Proof by induction?) If you can show this, and then use the fact that the sequence is bounded below (by zero), you have sequence that is monotonically decreasing and bounded below by 0, hence converges to 0.
 
You got the sign wrong. \frac{1}{n} &gt; \frac{n}{2^n} &gt; 0 for n>4. Next, apply the squeeze theorem.
you have sequence that is monotonically decreasing and bounded below by 0, hence converges to 0.

that's not enough. For example, 1+1/n is monotonically decreasing and it's bounded below by 0, but it does not converge to 0.
 
hamster143 said:
that's not enough. For example, 1+1/n is monotonically decreasing and it's bounded below by 0, but it does not converge to 0.
You got me. Mea culpa.
 
Thanks hamster, my teacher warned me against this kind of mistake too. Live and learn I guess :)
 
If x_{n+1}/x_n has limit r< 1 then you can "compare" the sequence to r^n.
 

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