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No! You are making this far too hard. This part is very simple!
You are given ##x_1(t)=v_{x1}t## and ##x_2(t)=v_{x2}t## and you are given that ##x_1(T)=x_2(T)## for some time ##T##. Substitute ##x_1(T)## with ##v_{x1}T## and do the same with ##x_2(T)## (but now use the expression for ##x_2##). The time ##T## presumably isn't zero (justify this!), so you can divide both sides of the equality by this quantity. What does that leave you with?
You are given ##x_1(t)=v_{x1}t## and ##x_2(t)=v_{x2}t## and you are given that ##x_1(T)=x_2(T)## for some time ##T##. Substitute ##x_1(T)## with ##v_{x1}T## and do the same with ##x_2(T)## (but now use the expression for ##x_2##). The time ##T## presumably isn't zero (justify this!), so you can divide both sides of the equality by this quantity. What does that leave you with?