Prove using three basic probability axioms

Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
2 replies · 4K views
hassman
Messages
36
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Prove that [itex]P(A \cap B)≥1-P(\bar{A})-P(\bar{B})[/itex]

for all [itex]A, B \subseteq S[/itex]using only these axioms:
1) [itex]0 \leq P(A) \leq 1[/itex], for any event [itex]A \subseteq S[/itex]
2) [itex]P(S) = 1[/itex]
3) [itex]P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B)[/itex] if and only if [itex]P(A \cap B) = 0[/itex]

Homework Equations


None.

The Attempt at a Solution



My proof:

First rearrange the shizzle:

[itex]P(\bar{A}) + P(A \cap B) + P(\bar{B}) \geq 1[/itex]

Now using the fact that the first two terms are disjoint, use axiom 3 to obtain:

[itex]P(\bar{A} \cup (A \cap B)) + P(\bar{B}) \geq 1[/itex]

Next note that the first term is equals to P(S), hence we get:

[itex]P(S) + P(\bar{B}) \geq 1[/itex]

which holds for all [itex]B \subseteq S[/itex], because [itex]P(S) = 1[/itex] and [itex]P(\bar{B}) \geq 0[/itex] for all B.

Is this proof correct?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
hassman said:

Homework Statement


Prove that [itex]P(A \cap B)≥1-P(\bar{A})-P(\bar{B})[/itex]

for all [itex]A, B \subseteq S[/itex]


using only these axioms:
1) [itex]0 \leq P(A) \leq 1[/itex], for any event [itex]A \subseteq S[/itex]
2) [itex]P(S) = 1[/itex]
3) [itex]P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B)[/itex] if and only if [itex]P(A \cap B) = 0[/itex]


Homework Equations


None.


The Attempt at a Solution



My proof:

First rearrange the shizzle:

[itex]P(\bar{A}) + P(A \cap B) + P(\bar{B}) \geq 1[/itex]

Now using the fact that the first two terms are disjoint, use axiom 3 to obtain:

[itex]P(\bar{A} \cup (A \cap B)) + P(\bar{B}) \geq 1[/itex]

Next note that the first term is equals to P(S), hence we get:

[itex]P(S) + P(\bar{B}) \geq 1[/itex]

which holds for all [itex]B \subseteq S[/itex], because [itex]P(S) = 1[/itex] and [itex]P(\bar{B}) \geq 0[/itex] for all B.

Is this proof correct?

In proof you can't start out claiming what you are trying to prove - you can only claim it isn't true and arriving at a contradiction. So you would say

Suppose [itex]P(A \cap B)<1-P(\bar{A})-P(\bar{B})[/itex] then try to arrive at a contradiction.