Proving a subgroup is equivalent to Z

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that the sum of two subgroups generated by polynomials in the integers is equivalent to the integers, specifically showing that \((n^{3} +2n)Z + (n^{4}+3n^{2}+1)Z = Z\) for \(n \in \mathbb{N}, n \geq 1\). The subject area pertains to group theory and the properties of subgroups of \(\mathbb{Z}\).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the approach of finding the greatest common divisor (gcd) of two polynomials as a means to prove the statement. There is also consideration of showing that 1 is in the group generated by the polynomials, which would imply the group is equivalent to \(\mathbb{Z}\). Questions arise about the validity of these approaches and the methods for finding the gcd of polynomials.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with some participants providing guidance on using the Euclidean algorithm and polynomial division to find the gcd. Others express uncertainty about their methods and seek reassurance about their reasoning. There is an acknowledgment of the learning process involved in tackling such proofs.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the challenges of working with polynomial expressions and the need for confidence in mathematical proofs. The discussion reflects on the iterative nature of problem-solving in mathematics, where exploring different approaches can lead to deeper understanding.

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Homework Statement



for n \in N, n \geq 1 Prove that (n^{3} +2n)Z + (n^{4}+3n^{2}+1)Z= Z

Homework Equations


I know subgroups of Z are of the form aZ for some a in Z and also that aZ+bZ= dZ, where d=gcd(a,b)

The Attempt at a Solution



So I was thinking if I could prove that the gcd of (n^3+2n) and (n^4+3n^2+1) was 1, then I could make the proof, but I'm struggling to figure out how to find a gcd of two polynomials... I also tried factoring to see if that led anywhere, but it didn't really...

Then I was thinking that if I could show that 1 was in the group, and since 1 generates Z, that would prove that the group was equivalent to Z... but then I wasn't actually sure that logic was sound.

Any help or some guidance in the right direction would be appreciated. Thanks!
 
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Your first idea is correct. Do you know the Euclidean algorithm and polynomial division? So that you can check your work, you should find that

-(n^3+2n)(n^3+2n) + (1+n^2)(n^4+3n^2+1) = 1
 
Thank you! For some reason I didn't think polynomial long division was the way to go... I'm always so unconfident when I do these sorts of proofs.
 
There is something to be said for confidence (or perhaps intuition?). Unfortunately, it seems like a lot of the time the only way to find that confidence/intuition is to fail/succeed at a tonne of questions.

Also, something you may notice is that (like this question) there are always many ways to attack a problem. We often cannot determine which way is correct until we have followed a path through to its conclusion and found that it is a dead end. Luckily, even dead-ends often provide insight and understanding into the structure of a problem: Even through failure, we are constantly learning.
 

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