Proving Abelian p-Group: gnhn = (gh)n

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equation gnhn = (gh)n for elements g and h in a p-group G, where all elements have order p. The original poster aims to establish that G is Abelian without relying on centers.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to show that m must be congruent to n modulo p, questioning whether this is a sufficient approach. Other participants suggest considering the properties of elements in G and their orders, while one participant introduces a counterexample to challenge the original assertion.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring different lines of reasoning. Some guidance is offered regarding the properties of elements in G, but there is no explicit consensus on the validity of the original poster's approach. The introduction of a counterexample indicates that multiple interpretations are being considered.

Contextual Notes

Participants are discussing the implications of the order of elements in a p-group and the potential for non-Abelian structures, highlighting the complexity of the problem.

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Homework Statement



How would I prove that gnhn = (gh)n, for g,h [itex]\in[/itex]G where G is a p-group, and all its elements have order p?

The Attempt at a Solution



My aim is to prove this in order to prove that G is Abelian, but I don't want to prove it using centres. I've supposed that gnhn = (gh)m for some m, and now I'm trying to prove that m must be congruent to n modulo p, as this is the only way that (gh)m = (gh)n since gh has order p. And this is where I strike a wall, so to speak. Is there a better way to prove that G is Abelian, if this isn't good enough?

Thanks!
 
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Think: generator.
 
As in...gh generates a cyclic group?
 
Well, yes, but don't think about gh. You know that if g is in G, then g has order p, correct?
 
That is, can you think of a way to write any element of G in terms of g?
 
Yeah, what you're trying to prove is false. A counterexample is given by

[itex](\mathbb{Z}_3\rtimes \mathbb{Z}_3)\times \mathbb{Z}_3[/itex]

All (non-identity) elements have order 3 and the group is non-abelian.
 

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