Show that G is abelian, if and only if (gh)^-1 = g^(-1) h^(-1)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that a group G is abelian if and only if the equation (gh)^{-1} = g^{-1} h^{-1} holds for all elements g, h in G. This involves concepts from group theory and properties of inverses.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore different methods to demonstrate the equivalence of the two statements regarding the group being abelian and the inverse property. Some suggest taking inverses of both sides as a straightforward approach.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exchange of ideas about how to present the proof clearly and concisely. Some participants have provided feedback on the clarity of the original poster's work, while others have confirmed the correctness of the reasoning presented.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of presentation in mathematical proofs and the potential for confusion in the original formatting. There is also a mention of the need for clarity in communication, similar to writing in an English class.

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Homework Statement



Show that a group G is abelian, if and only if (gh)^{-1} = g^{-1} h^{-1} for all g,h\in G

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



gh = hg \\⇔ (gh)(gh)^{-1} = hg(gh)^{-1} \\⇔ <br /> <br /> 1 = hg(gh)^{-1} \\⇔h^{-1} = (h^{-1}h)g(gh)^{-1} \\ ⇔g^{-1}h^{-1} = (g^{-1}g)(gh)^{-1}\\ ⇔ (gh)^{-1} = g^{-1}h^{-1}<br /> <br />

The converse is clear from the above by taking the steps backwards

Thus the statement is proved. Correct?
 
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looks kinda messy. your grader is like your boss, you should present your work in an easy to read format.
 
where exactly do you see the mess? So that I can make it clearer?
 
if gh=hg, take the inverse of both sides, one step, done.

on the other hand, if (gh)^-1=g^-1h^-1, take the inverse of both sides, one step done.
 
tonit said:

Homework Statement



Show that a group G is abelian, if and only if (gh)^{-1} = g^{-1} h^{-1} for all g,h\in G

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



gh = hg \\⇔ (gh)(gh)^{-1} = hg(gh)^{-1} \\⇔ <br /> <br /> 1 = hg(gh)^{-1} \\⇔h^{-1} = (h^{-1}h)g(gh)^{-1} \\ ⇔g^{-1}h^{-1} = (g^{-1}g)(gh)^{-1}\\ ⇔ (gh)^{-1} = g^{-1}h^{-1}<br /> <br />

The converse is clear from the above by taking the steps backwards

Thus the statement is proved. Correct?

clear? hmm. concise? no. as every good grader should tell you, this was harder to read than it should have been. it's like in an english class, you don't turn in your first draft. by the end of your first draft, you barely know what you're saying. the nice thing about math, you're not turning in 20 pages. (but sometimes your scratch work may feel like it.)
 
I'm assuming you know the rule (gh)^-1=h^-1g^-1
 
If gh = hg\\(gh)^{-1} = (hg)^{-1}\Rightarrow (gh)^{-1} = g^{-1}h^{-1}

conversely, if (gh)^{-1} = g^{-1}h^{-1}\\((gh)^{-1})^{-1} = (g^{-1}h^{-1})^{-1}\\\Rightarrow gh = (h^{-1})^{-1}(g^{-1})^{-1} = hg
 
Yes, that looks a lot cleaner. Now I'm not sure if it was cleaner to prove both directions at the same time, play around with it, but it's right, I'll let you figure out how to pick a final format.

(The way you have it now you don't need the double arrow)
 
yeah. Thanks for the help, I'm learning a lot at this forum really :D
 

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