Proving bijection between a region

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a bijection between the regions defined by the inequalities 0

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the need to demonstrate that an inverse function exists for the mapping between (u,v) and (x,y). There are discussions on whether to calculate u and v in terms of x and y directly or to consider alternative relationships, such as using tangent functions. Some participants express uncertainty about deriving u and v solely from the equations for x and y.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants sharing their thoughts on injectivity and surjectivity as methods for proving the bijection. References to external resources, such as the Inverse Function Theorem, are made to support their reasoning. There is acknowledgment of the complexity involved in finding the inverse transformation.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the challenge of expressing u and v exclusively in terms of x and y, which is central to the discussion of the bijection. The reference to a specific text suggests that the problem may have established solutions or examples that could inform their approach.

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Homework Statement



Prove bijection between the regions
0<x<1, 0<y<1, 0<u, 0<v, u+v<pi/2

Homework Equations



x=sinu/cosv y = sinv/cosu


The Attempt at a Solution



We need to show that an inverse function exists to prove the bijection so obviously, (u,v) maps to one and only one (x,y) for the above. But what about the other way around? What is the best approach
Do we need to calculate:
u=arcsin(xcosv), v=arccos(sinu/x), u=arccos(sinv/y), v=arcsin(ycosu) and then look at each individually? Or could we divide one by the other and obtain tan(u)tan(v)=xy so that u=arctan(xy/tan(v) and v=arctan(xy/tan(u))?
 
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Gekko said:

Homework Statement



Prove bijection between the regions
0<x<1, 0<y<1, 0<u, 0<v, u+v<pi/2

Homework Equations



x=sinu/cosv y = sinv/cosu


The Attempt at a Solution



We need to show that an inverse function exists to prove the bijection so obviously, (u,v) maps to one and only one (x,y) for the above. But what about the other way around? What is the best approach
Do we need to calculate:
u=arcsin(xcosv), v=arccos(sinu/x), u=arccos(sinv/y), v=arcsin(ycosu) and then look at each individually? Or could we divide one by the other and obtain tan(u)tan(v)=xy so that u=arctan(xy/tan(v) and v=arctan(xy/tan(u))?
I'm not sure that you can solve for u and v from your equations for x and y. Maybe it's possible, but I haven't come up with anything. Your attempts seem like good ideas at first, but you need u in terms of x and y alone, and the same for v. If you have learned about the Inverse Function Theorem (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_function_theorem), you can use it to show that there is an inverse mapping from a point (x, y) to a point (u, v).
 
The u and v one paragraph above is the inverse transformation
 
Of course! Thanks
 

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