Proving bijection between a region

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Homework Statement



Prove bijection between the regions
0<x<1, 0<y<1, 0<u, 0<v, u+v<pi/2

Homework Equations



x=sinu/cosv y = sinv/cosu


The Attempt at a Solution



We need to show that an inverse function exists to prove the bijection so obviously, (u,v) maps to one and only one (x,y) for the above. But what about the other way around? What is the best approach
Do we need to calculate:
u=arcsin(xcosv), v=arccos(sinu/x), u=arccos(sinv/y), v=arcsin(ycosu) and then look at each individually? Or could we divide one by the other and obtain tan(u)tan(v)=xy so that u=arctan(xy/tan(v) and v=arctan(xy/tan(u))?
 
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Gekko said:

Homework Statement



Prove bijection between the regions
0<x<1, 0<y<1, 0<u, 0<v, u+v<pi/2

Homework Equations



x=sinu/cosv y = sinv/cosu


The Attempt at a Solution



We need to show that an inverse function exists to prove the bijection so obviously, (u,v) maps to one and only one (x,y) for the above. But what about the other way around? What is the best approach
Do we need to calculate:
u=arcsin(xcosv), v=arccos(sinu/x), u=arccos(sinv/y), v=arcsin(ycosu) and then look at each individually? Or could we divide one by the other and obtain tan(u)tan(v)=xy so that u=arctan(xy/tan(v) and v=arctan(xy/tan(u))?
I'm not sure that you can solve for u and v from your equations for x and y. Maybe it's possible, but I haven't come up with anything. Your attempts seem like good ideas at first, but you need u in terms of x and y alone, and the same for v. If you have learned about the Inverse Function Theorem (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_function_theorem), you can use it to show that there is an inverse mapping from a point (x, y) to a point (u, v).