Proving Gauss's Theorem: Closed Surface

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving Gauss's theorem, specifically the assertion that the integral of the normal vector over a closed surface is zero. Participants are examining the implications of the theorem and the nature of the vector field involved.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the nature of the vector field \(\vec{A}\) and its divergence, questioning whether it is constant and how that affects the integral. There are discussions about the meaning of the terms used, such as "ds" versus "d\vec{S}", and the implications of integrating a vector versus a scalar function.

Discussion Status

The conversation includes various interpretations of the problem, with some participants suggesting different forms of the vector \(\vec{A}\) and how to apply Gauss's theorem. There is an ongoing exploration of the mathematical expressions involved, with no clear consensus yet on the approach to take.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express confusion regarding the definitions and notations used in the problem statement, particularly concerning the integration of vector fields and the implications of using a constant vector. The discussion reflects a mix of attempts to clarify these concepts and to derive the necessary proofs.

rado5
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Homework Statement



Using Gauss's theorem prove that \int_{s}\vec{n}ds=0 if s is a closed surface.

Homework Equations



Gauss's theorem: \int_{V}\nabla.\vec{A}dv= \oint_{s}\vec{A}.\vec{n}da

The Attempt at a Solution


In this problem \vec{A} is constant so \nabla.\vec{A}=0 so \int_{s}\vec{n}ds= \int_{V}\nabla.\vec{A}dv=0

Please tell me if it is wrong. Is there a better solution?
 
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I think in this problem \vec{A}=(1,1,1) is it correct? So \nabla.\vec{A}=0
 
rado5 said:
I think in this problem \vec{A}=(1,1,1) is it correct? So \nabla.\vec{A}=0

Not quite. The integral of nds is a vector, call it N. If you use A=(1,0,0) that would show that the x component of A is zero, right?
 
rado5 said:

Homework Statement



Using Gauss's theorem prove that \int_{s}\vec{n}ds=0 if s is a closed surface.
What does this mean? In Gauss's theorem, below, \vec{A}\cdot\vec{n} is a scalar function that you are integrating over the surface of the region. Here, you are integrating a vector valued function, \vec{n}, itself, over what? Below you use "da" as a "differential of surface area". What is "ds"? Do you mean "ds" to represent the "vector differential of surface area" that I would call "d\vec{S}", the vector perpendicular to the surface with length the differential of surface area:
\oint d\vec{S}= \oint \vec{n}\cdot \vec{n}dS[/itex] (and my &quot;dS&quot; is your &quot;da&quot;). Apparently not, because in that case, your &quot;A&quot; below is just the the normal vector \vec{n} itself, not a constant vector and \0\int d\vec{S}= 0 is not true!<br /> <br /> <blockquote data-attributes="" data-quote="" data-source="" class="bbCodeBlock bbCodeBlock--expandable bbCodeBlock--quote js-expandWatch"> <div class="bbCodeBlock-content"> <div class="bbCodeBlock-expandContent js-expandContent "> <h2>Homework Equations</h2><br /> <br /> Gauss&#039;s theorem: \int_{V}\nabla.\vec{A}dv= \oint_{s}\vec{A}.\vec{n}da<br /> <br /> <h2>The Attempt at a Solution</h2><br /> In this problem \vec{A} is constant so \nabla.\vec{A}=0 so \int_{s}\vec{n}ds= \int_{V}\nabla.\vec{A}dv=0<br /> <br /> Please tell me if it is wrong. Is there a better solution? </div> </div> </blockquote>
 
I think the main idea here is to take note of the fact that for any constant vector \textbf{A}, you can say

\int_{\mathcal{S}}\textbf{A}\cdot\textbf{n}da=\textbf{A}\cdot\int_{\mathcal{S}}\textbf{n}da

And from here, just apply Gauss' theorem.
 
Dick said:
Not quite. The integral of nds is a vector, call it N. If you use A=(1,0,0) that would show that the x component of A is zero, right?

Right, gabbagabbahey. In the above post I meant to say "that would show that the x component of n ds is zero". Ooops.
 
Ok, first of all I would like to thank all of you for your great generosity to make me understand this problem.

Now I think I can prove it, and this is my work.

\int_{s}\vec{n}da= \int_{s}(n_{x},n_{y},n_{z})da= (\int_{s}n_{x} da ,\int_{s}n_{y} da ,\int_{s}n_{z} da)

\int_{s}n_{x} da= \int_{s}(\vec{i}.\vec{n})da= \int_{V}\nabla.\vec{i}dv= \int_{V}0 dv= 0

And now I can say that \int_{s}\vec{n}da= 0
 
Last edited:
rado5 said:
Ok, first of all I would like to thank all of you for your great generosity to make me understand this problem.

Now I think I can prove it, and this is my work.

\int_{s}\vec{n}da= \int_{s}(n_{x},n_{y},n_{z})da= (\int_{s}n_{x} da ,\int_{s}n_{y} da ,\int_{s}n_{z} da)

\int_{s}n_{x} da= \int_{s}(\vec{i}.\vec{n})da= \int_{V}\nabla.\vec{i}dv= \int_{v}0 dv= 0

And now I can say that \int_{s}\vec{n}da= 0

That's it.
 
Thank you very much, you are all wonderful instructors and I do respect you a lot. I would like to donate to this wonderful site, but unfortunately in my terrible country, we have no credit cards and no western union, previously I had wanted to donate to http://ocw.mit.edu but I couldn't.
 

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