Proving Hermiticity for the Product of Two Hermitian Operators

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the Hermiticity of the product of two Hermitian operators, Q and R. It establishes that QR is Hermitian if and only if the operators commute, expressed mathematically as [Q, R] = 0. The user successfully demonstrated the Hermiticity condition using the integral form involving random functions f and g, but seeks further clarification on its implications. The complexities of proving this for unbounded operators are also noted, highlighting the challenges in defining commutativity in that context.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Hermitian operators and their properties
  • Familiarity with commutation relations in quantum mechanics
  • Knowledge of integral calculus involving complex functions
  • Basic concepts of bounded and unbounded linear operators in Hilbert spaces
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of Hermitian operators in quantum mechanics
  • Learn about commutation relations and their implications in operator theory
  • Explore the concept of bounded vs. unbounded operators in functional analysis
  • Investigate the role of integrals in proving operator properties in Hilbert spaces
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for students and researchers in quantum mechanics, particularly those studying operator theory, as well as mathematicians focusing on functional analysis and linear algebra.

Trance
Messages
11
Reaction score
0
Hello everybody, long time reader, first time poster.
I've searched the forums extensively (and what seems like 60% of the entire internet) for anything relevant and haven't found anything, please point me in the right direction if you've seen this before!

Homework Statement


Show that even though Q and R are Hermitian operators, QR is only Hermitian if [Q,R]=0

Homework Equations


[Q,R] = QR - RQ
[Q,R]* = R*Q*-Q*R*

The Attempt at a Solution


I've managed to prove, using the definition of Hermiticity that:

∫f(i(QR-RQ))g dτ = ∫g(i(QR-RQ))*f dτ

For two random functions, f and g, and i= Sqrt(-1)

But I'm not sure how relevant this is... I don't have a strong enough intuition to see whether or not this immediately proves anything. Any help would be greatly appreciated!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
For bounded linear operators acting on a separable Hilbert space, you have that, if [itex]Q=Q^{\dagger} ,\, R=R^{\dagger}[/itex], then [itex](QR)^{\dagger} = R^{\dagger}Q^{\dagger} = RQ[/itex] and it is equal to QR, if Q and R commute. For unbounded operators, the proof is much more complicated, since the concept of commutativity is harder to define.
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
4K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
9K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
5K
Replies
9
Views
40K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
4K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
4K
Replies
2
Views
10K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K