Proving Inequality: n Choose k <= 1/k!

  • Thread starter Thread starter neemer
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Inequality Proof
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the inequality \(\binom{n}{k} \cdot \frac{1}{n^k} \leq \frac{1}{k!}\) for natural numbers \(n\) and \(k\) where \(0 < k < n\). Participants suggest that induction may not be the best approach, advocating for case analysis instead. The equivalence to \(\frac{\prod_{i=n-k+1}^n i}{n^k} \leq 1\) is highlighted as a crucial step in the proof. The conversation emphasizes the need to handle the case when \(k=0\) separately and clarifies that the definition of natural numbers may vary among participants.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of binomial coefficients, specifically \(\binom{n}{k}\)
  • Familiarity with factorial notation and properties
  • Basic knowledge of inequalities and their proofs
  • Concepts of ordered fields and their axioms
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of binomial coefficients and their applications in combinatorics
  • Learn about different proof techniques, focusing on case analysis versus induction
  • Explore the axioms of ordered fields and their implications in mathematical proofs
  • Investigate the implications of defining natural numbers with and without zero in mathematical contexts
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, educators, and anyone interested in combinatorial proofs and inequalities in discrete mathematics.

neemer
Messages
22
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement

mathshity.JPG


its the second one.
let n∈ℕ \ 0 and k∈ℕ show that
(n choose k) 1/n^k <= 1/k!

Homework Equations



axioms of ordered fields?

The Attempt at a Solution



[/B]i have been working on this all afternoon. I know 0<k<n since its a requirement for (n choose k). I've tried induction, base case works but cannot figure out how to do inductive step. I don't really think induction is the correct method. I've tried cases, n=k is easy to prove but n>k i cannot figure out. Any help getting me started in the right direction would be appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
As n > 0 you can instead try proving the equivalent statement:

\binom n k \le \frac {n^k}{k!}
 
##n! < n^n ##
So what inequality might hold for the largest k terms of n! ?
 
Thanks for the replies.

I tried playing around with these for an hour this morning. When trying to prove that equivalent statement, Its obvious that its true but I still don't know how to "prove" it. Leaves me in the same situation as before just allows me to cancel a factor of 1/k! from either side of the inequality.

RUber, that inequality holds for all n>=2 i believe. Since k has to be less than n though the only way I could write k in terms of n is n-1 and at this point i am struggling again on what to do next.

Right now I'm thinking cases is the best way to try and prove this since its easy to prove the inequality for n=k. I just need to prove that it holds for n>k and then I would be done.
 
I don't think you need induction, this is a straightforward relation.
##\left( \begin{array}{c} n\\k \end{array} \right) \frac{1}{n^k} \leq \frac{1}{k!} ##
Is saying:
##\frac{n!}{(n-k)!(k)!}\frac{1}{n^k} \leq \frac{1}{k!} ##
Which is equivalent to (for k >0)
##\frac{\left( \prod_{i = n-k+1}^n i \right) }{(k)!}\frac{1}{n^k} \leq \frac{1}{k!} ##
So as you said by cancelling out the ##\frac{1}{k!} ## the relation you need to prove is :
##\frac{\left( \prod_{i = n-k+1}^n i \right) }{n^k} \leq 1##
And for k= 0 :
##\frac{n!}{(n-k)!(k)!}\frac{1}{n^k} =1 \leq \frac{1}{k!} =1 ##
 
ok I'm able to understand most of this. I am a little confused how you changed n!/(n-k)! into that product but i can see that it makes sense. Isn't k=0 just one case though? Wouldn't i still need to prove somehow that the inequality holds for k>0 but still k<n?
 
## \frac{5!}{(5-2)!}= \frac{5*4*3*2*1}{3*2*1}=\prod_{i=5-2+1}^5 i =\prod_{i=4}^5 i=4*5.##
The first relation I wrote above (with the product notation) is for any k not equal to zero, then for k=0, the relation is just 1=1.
I find it odd that it seems your definition of natural numbers includes zero. That is not what I am used to. In any case, it just adds one case to the proof.
 
Ok thanks I am pretty sure I got it now.
 
neemer said:

Homework Statement

View attachment 74442

its the second one.
let n∈ℕ \ 0 and k∈ℕ show that
(n choose k) 1/n^k <= 1/k!

Homework Equations



axioms of ordered fields?

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
i have been working on this all afternoon. I know 0<k<n since its a requirement for (n choose k). I've tried induction, base case works but cannot figure out how to do inductive step. I don't really think induction is the correct method. I've tried cases, n=k is easy to prove but n>k i cannot figure out. Any help getting me started in the right direction would be appreciated.

If you insist on posting images (which is discouraged in PF) you should at least attempt to post them correctly--not sideways like you did. If you want help, don't make it difficult for us to see what you are doing.
 

Similar threads

Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K