Proving Integral of Arcsech x using Integration by Parts

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SUMMARY

The integral of arcsech(x) from 4/5 to 1 is proven to equal 2arctan(2) - π/2 - (4/5) ln(2) using integration by parts. The process involves setting u = arcsech(x) and differentiating to find du/dx = -1/(x² sinh(u)). The solution requires transforming the expression into a form involving arctan, specifically showing that 2arctan(2) + sin⁻¹(4/5) = π. This is validated through trigonometric identities and properties of the tangent function.

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  • Understanding of integration by parts
  • Familiarity with hyperbolic functions, specifically arcsech and sech
  • Knowledge of trigonometric identities, particularly involving arctan
  • Ability to differentiate implicit functions
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  • Study the properties of hyperbolic functions and their inverses
  • Learn advanced integration techniques, focusing on integration by parts
  • Explore trigonometric identities related to arctan and their applications
  • Investigate the geometric interpretations of arcsech and sech functions
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Homework Statement


I was asked to prove the integral

##\int_{\frac{4}{5}}^{1} \textrm{arcsech}(x) =2\arctan 2-\frac{\pi}{2}-\frac{4}{5} \ln 2##

Homework Equations


Integration by parts

The Attempt at a Solution


Let ##u=\textrm{arcsech} (x)##
##\textrm{sech u}=x##
##\textrm{cosh u}=\frac{1}{x}##
Differentiating implicitly,

##\textrm{sinh u} \frac{du}{dx}=\frac{-1}{x^{2}}##
##\frac{du}{dx}=\frac{-1}{x^{2}\textrm{sinh u}}##

Then I simplify it into
##\frac{-1}{x\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}##

Let ##\frac{dv}{dx}=1##

##v=x##

Using integration by parts and evaluating the integral, I got
##\frac{\pi}{2}-\sin^{-1} \frac{4}{5} -\frac{4}{5} \ln 2##

Which is numerically correct. But how do I obtain ##2\tan^{-1} 2 ## as shown in the question above?
 
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sooyong94 said:

Homework Statement


I was asked to prove the integral

##\int_{\frac{4}{5}}^{1} \textrm{arcsech}(x) =2\arctan 2-\frac{\pi}{2}-\frac{4}{5} \ln 2##

Homework Equations


Integration by parts

The Attempt at a Solution


Let ##u=\textrm{arcsech} (x)##
##\textrm{sech u}=x##
##\textrm{cosh u}=\frac{1}{x}##
Differentiating implicitly,

##\textrm{sinh u} \frac{du}{dx}=\frac{-1}{x^{2}}##
##\frac{du}{dx}=\frac{-1}{x^{2}\textrm{sinh u}}##

Then I simplify it into
##\frac{-1}{x\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}##

Let ##\frac{dv}{dx}=1##

##v=x##

Using integration by parts and evaluating the integral, I got
##\frac{\pi}{2}-\sin^{-1} \frac{4}{5} -\frac{4}{5} \ln 2##

Which is numerically correct. But how do I obtain ##2\tan^{-1} 2 ## as shown in the question above?

Draw the standard 3-4-5 right triangle. Observe that ##\frac{\pi}{2}-\sin^{-1} \frac{4}{5} = \tan^{-1}\frac{3}{4}##.

You now have to get ##\tan^{-1}\frac{3}{4}## into something with ##\tan^{-1}2## in it.

I found this a little tricky. The best solution I could find was to let:

##\tan^{-1}\frac{3}{4} = x## so ##\tan x = \frac{3}{4}##

Then let x = 2y so that ##\tan 2y = \frac{3}{4}##

Solve for y in the form ##y = \tan^{-1}z##, where z is something you have to find. Only one value is admissible. Express x as 2y = ##2\tan^{-1}z.##

Now observe that ##\frac{1 + \tan w}{1 - \tan w} = \tan(w + \frac{\pi}{4})##. Use that to find an alternative form for ##\tan^{-1}z##, which will allow you to find x, in the form you need.

There might be a simpler way (indeed, it might start with an alternative solution of the integral), but I can't immediately find one.
 
Last edited:
To show the answers are the same, you have to show ##2 \tan^{-1} 2 + \sin^{-1}\displaystyle\frac 4 5 = \pi##.

From a 3-4-5 triangle, ##\sin^{-1}\displaystyle\frac 4 5 = \tan^{-1}\displaystyle\frac 4 3##.

From ##\tan^{-1}a + \tan^{-1}b = \tan^{-1}\displaystyle\frac{a+b}{1-ab}##,

##2 \tan^{-1} 2 = \tan^{-1}\displaystyle\frac {-4} 3 = \pi - \tan^{-1}\displaystyle\frac 4 3##.

QED.
 
AlephZero said:
To show the answers are the same, you have to show ##2 \tan^{-1} 2 + \sin^{-1}\displaystyle\frac 4 5 = \pi##.

From a 3-4-5 triangle, ##\sin^{-1}\displaystyle\frac 4 5 = \tan^{-1}\displaystyle\frac 4 3##.

From ##\tan^{-1}a + \tan^{-1}b = \tan^{-1}\displaystyle\frac{a+b}{1-ab}##,

##2 \tan^{-1} 2 = \tan^{-1}\displaystyle\frac {-4} 3 = \pi - \tan^{-1}\displaystyle\frac 4 3##.

QED.

I don't get it, but why
##2 \tan^{-1} 2 = \tan^{-1}\displaystyle\frac {-4} 3 = \pi - \tan^{-1}\displaystyle\frac 4 3##.
 
I think the equalities should be $$2 \tan^{-1} 2 = \tan^{-1} \left(-\frac{4}{3}\right) + \pi = \pi - \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{4}{3}\right)$$

Using Alephzero's formula with ##a=b## gives $$\tan(\tan^{-1} 2 + \tan^{-1} 2) = -\frac{4}{3} \Rightarrow 2\tan^{-1} 2 = \tan^{-1} \left(-\frac{4}{3}\right) + \pi$$
 
Compare the graphs of ##\ y=\text{arcsech}(x) \ ## and ## y=\text{sech}(x)\ .##

Integrate ## y=\text{sech}(x)\ ## to get an area related to that given by integrating ##\ y=\text{arcsech}(x) \ .##

You will have to subtract the area of some rectangle.
 
SammyS said:
Compare the graphs of ##\ y=\text{arcsech}(x) \ ## and ## y=\text{sech}(x)\ .##

Integrate ## y=\text{sech}(x)\ ## to get an area related to that given by integrating ##\ y=\text{arcsech}(x) \ .##

You will have to subtract the area of some rectangle.

I plotted two graphs and yet I can't figure it out... :(
Capture.jpg
 
sooyong94 said:
I plotted two graphs and yet I can't figure it out... :(
attachment.php?attachmentid=70013&stc=1&d=1400850787.jpg

The definite integral you are evaluating represents the area below the y = arcsech(x) graph which is between x = 4/5 and x = 1 . Notice that arcsech(4/5) = ln(2) .

That is the same as the area below the y = sech(x) graph and above y = 4/5, for x ≥ 0. Right?
 

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